Sue

NN,

You wrote,

“The words use when instructing wives is in the middle voice, indicating a voluntary submission on the part of the person.”

You are here making a claim that the middle voice INDICATES that the action is undertaken voluntarily. But later you say,

“I would entirely agree about the vagueness of the particular usage of the Greek voices. I simply note that here the verb is in the middle voice, and if you look throughout the NT, the middle voice for this verb is most typically associated with a voluntary submission on the part of the subject.”

Are you claiming that the middle voice indicates that the verb is voluntary or not? And can you provide evidence for this?