NN

To Susanna #84 & 87
I don’t get the sense that you are understanding what I am saying, and I am afraid I don’t know how to make it clearer – so I think we drop this discussion of word origins where it is.

The only last note that I would make is that you say:
“The word “Lord” must therefore mean “an absolute Lord,” and this was how the Greek understood it, for the owner of a slave was called a “lord.” ”
Since this is a single word (kurios) which is it? Does this mean lord & sir or does it only mean “absolute lord”? You have now stated both claims.