pinklight

Merely that this passage would be compatible with this case and therefore does not disprove complementarian claims. You will have to look for other arguments in support of your view.

Ofcourse it can be compatible, the society was patriarchal. So what? The time the text was written tells us nothing about whether or not male rule is biblical. God telling husbands that their wives have authority over their bodies amongst a patriarchal society doesn’t lend a thing but to egalism. The comp case has no support from the passage and the egal view does since both husband and wife have authority. The problem here is that the comp case has no support from the passage.