gengwall

Mark – the Hebraic culture certainly might have had an impact on Moses’ writing as it dealt with the law and other contemporary matters, but it can’t be claimed that the culture of Moses influenced Adam’s actions. Yet that seems to be what you are claiming – that Adam’s actions were a reflection of hebraic culture. How can that be when there was no such thing as a hebraic culture when Adam engaged in his actions? If the culture of Moses’ time is the lens through which we interpret the actions of Adam’s time, isn’t that revisionist history?