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2025-01-03 debate

As stated previously, if ἄνδρα can apply to any person in certain contexts, then given Paul’s gender-agnostic syntax in 1Ti 3 and Tit 1 and his own singleness, he is clearly not requiring marriage but ‘faithful if married’ and ‘monogamous.’ It’s what makes sense of all details.

hermeneutics

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counterargument

As stated previously, if ἄνδρα can apply to any person in certain contexts, then given Paul’s gender-agnostic syntax in 1Ti 3 and Tit 1 and his own singleness, he is clearly not requiring marriage but ‘faithful if married’ and ‘monogamous.’ It’s what makes sense of all details.

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