The problem is that if the man was supposed to rule the woman before the fall, then why is this a new statement made in Gen 3:16? Some complementarians believe that Gen 3:16 is an oppressive rule. However, "oppress" is not used here but a normal word for govern or rule. /+4
Debate Points
The problem is that if the man was supposed to rule the woman before the fall, then why is this a new statement made in Gen 3:16? Some complementarians believe that Gen 3:16 is an oppressive rule. However, "oppress" is not used here but a normal word for govern or rule. /+4
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