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Ok, getting back to answering Mark. Several of his paragraphs subsequent to the ones I have already addressed are expansions on the same issues. So I’m going to comment only on the ones that are left

Ok — here is my response to the first of Mark’s points that I said I was going to respond to. His words are in bold, followed by mine. **My point is that both the Jewish (missed by Kristen when she

Ok, finally getting back to this: NN said: “Let us apply the reasoning which you just outlined to a parallel passage of scripture, we’ll pick 1st Peter: [1 Pet 2:13](logos4:///Bible/1Pe 2.13) ~

Jeremiah, there are other ways to explain sin coming through Adam than “federal headship.” Such a concept is never explained in the Bible. [Genesis 3](logos4:///Bible/Ge 3) and [1 Timothy 2](logos4://

Mark, “masculine” words in Greek do not mean the word is masculine. That’s a common mistake Enlish speakers make. The gender of a noun is part of the language; it doesn’t mean a “masculine” word there

James, I am not the blog owner, nor am I the author of this post. That would be Cheryl. I simply saw your comment in the recent comments section, and responded– that is all. I appreciate your words a