Kay

“See to me the test is in the scriptures, not in philosophical reasoning!”

Mark,
I understand what you’re getting at, but I think we are allowed to use reason. (Isa.1:18)

Let’s consider II Peter 3:9.
“The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.”

Does the context really limit the words “any” and “all” to only the elect?

Earlier in the chapter, Peter begins by encouraging these Christians to beware scoffers, who would mock the Christians’ belief in Christ’s second coming and the destruction of the world (II Peter 3:1-4). He reminds that these scoffers are “willfully forgetful”(3:4-6) The difficulty for the Christians’ was that they were being mocked because fulfillment seemed anything but imminent, so Peter reminds them that time has a different meaning to God, and He will keep His promise (3:8). Finally, he also reminds them that God is patient, longsuffering, and therefore waits because He does not want any to perish (3:9).

Now consider the implications of this context upon this question: Who are the ones to come to repentance?
Peter mentions “us” in verse 9, but he also mentions the entire world and even “ungodly men” in the context. Let us consider that the words “any” and “all” are indeed general. Granting this, let us consider two interpretations and determine which makes the most sense with the context. Now if this verse refers only to the elect, then God is “longsuffering” for the elect to “come to repentance”. How is this possible if it is God who predestines all things, and if it is God who brings about their salvation through the direct operation of the Holy Spirit? Is God being longsuffering with Himself? What is He waiting on? Surely not the non-elect to come to Him, or to be willing, or to repent *because He knows He isn’t drawing them*? Right? Now, if God has already predestined these, with whom is He being longsuffering?