Sin Nature Through Man
The question has come up on this blog about whether Adam had a sin nature at the fall that would have been passed on to all of us, and if this is an issue that is important regarding women in ministry. After all, we need to know why it is that only Adam would bring sin into the world and if all of u
Date: 2010-03-26
URL: https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2010/03/26/sin-nature-through-man/

Adam’s sin hung us all out to dry
The question has come up on this blog about whether Adam had a sin nature at the fall that would have been passed on to all of us, and if this is an issue that is important regarding women in ministry. After all, we need to know why it is that only Adam would bring sin into the world and if all of us have something “hanging” onto us from just on man, why is that? We need to know why sin didn’t come into the world through the woman. Is this because she was “under” the man so that anything she did was not placed on her account but on his account? These questions and more will be answered in this post. First of all, it should be noted that the term “sin nature” is not found in the Scriptures. The Biblical terms are “old man”, “old self”, “body of flesh”, “in the flesh”, “uncircumcised in heart” along with the symbol of the old nature – the foreskin of the heart. Here are just of a few of the verses that talk about the old nature in these terms.
Colossians 3:9 (NKJV) Do not lie to one another, since you have put off the old man with his deeds,
Ephesians 4:22 (NASB) that, in reference to your former manner of life, you lay aside the old self, which is being corrupted in accordance with the lusts of deceit,
Colossians 2:11 (NASB) and in Him you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ;
Romans 8:13 (NASB) for if you are living according to the flesh, you must die; but if by the Spirit you are putting to death the deeds of the body, you will live.
Romans 7:14 (NASB) The Conflict of Two Natures 14 For we know that the Law is spiritual, but I am of flesh, sold into bondage to sin.
Deuteronomy 10:16 (NASB) “So circumcise your heart, and stiffen your neck no longer.
Acts 7:51 (NASB) “You men who are stiff-necked and uncircumcised in heart and ears are always resisting the Holy Spirit; you are doing just as your fathers did.
God did not create mankind to be this way with sin controlling our lives. Mankind was created perfect and without sin, but a change happened when Adam chose to act in rebellion without any deception on his part that would have caused him to fall into sin and when Adam had the full knowledge of the truth. How long Adam and Eve had been in their state of perfection before the fall is debatable. The only age given for Adam when he was outside the garden is at the birth of Seth who is said to be in the image of his Father Adam. Adam was then 130 years old. Adam had passed on his own fallen image to his children as none of them were born perfect as he had been created perfect. If Adam was 130 when Seth was born, it certainly is possible that Adam could have lived as much as a hundred years or more before he was kicked out of the garden and before Eve gave birth to their first child. Whatever the time period, Adam and Eve were sinless during that entire time until the fall. This is in stark contrast to mankind after Adam, as all of us can hardly live one day without sin. The difference between the ability to live a sinless life for perhaps as long as a hundred years or more and not being able to live sinless for a day is the result of the significant effect of what we call the sin nature or the old man who is now a part of the core of our being because we were all “in” Adam when he fell. There is something in us that has been tainted by the fall.
1 Corinthians 15:22 (NASB) For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive.
Romans 5:14-19 talks about the effect of the one man’s sin upon the human race.
Romans 5:14-19 (NASB) 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many. 19 For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. 16 The gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from one transgression resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift arose from many transgressions resulting in justification.
17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.
18 So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.
There was a condemnation that came to all men because of just one transgression of one man in rebellion. We will pick this up a bit later. There are several common errors that come from the teaching about the effect of Adam’s sin on the world. The first common error has caused many to reject the teaching of Adam’s sin having any effect on us. That error that has been taught by many is the doctrine that Adam’s offspring are charged by God with Adam’s sin. The Bible lays this error to rest by stating that the son will not bear the punishment for the father’s sin.
Ezekiel 18:20 (NASB) “The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment for the father’s iniquity, nor will the father bear the punishment for the son’s iniquity; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be upon himself.
It is impossible for Adam’s sin to be charged to our account. In other words, although we get the nature of the “old man” through Adam, no person will ever end up in hell to pay for Adam’s sin. Anyone who goes to hell will be there solely for their own sin because God does not charge the son with the actual sin of the father. The other error is the thinking that God made Adam just like us as far as our ability to sin. Mankind is not just able to sin, but we have been made slaves to sin with the propensity to sin as if it is just a part of our created nature. Watch a young child and see how naturally they learn how to lie without anyone ever teaching them this sin. But Adam was not this way. He was created able to sin when tempted but he was also created able not to sin. He was created with sin having no hold on him. He could turn his back on sin as easily as shooing a fly off of his shoulder because that was his nature as a perfect sinless man. The only way that Adam or Eve could sin would be through deception or through willful rebellion. There was no other way possible as sin did not live in Adam or Eve. A similar situation happened with the creation of one of God’s foremost angels. He was created perfect until the day that sin was found in him. Through one act of rebellion against God, he became a sinner who now cannot *stop sinning. In fact, Jesus said that there is no truth in him. His nature went from perfection to complete rebellion. The very focus of his existence now as satan is the life of an opposer of God and an accuser of the brethren. It was only one sin and that one act of rebellion that took a perfect creature to the place of a habitual sinner without the ability to get back to where he had fallen from. Adam was in this same place. When Adam chose to rebel against God’s one law in an act of rebellion, he fell from his place of perfection into the life of a habitual sinner. And it is Adam’s rebellion that we inherit. Adam’s rebellion tainted his very being at the moment that he reached out and touched the fruit and ate. It was because he ate with his eyes wide open to the truth and without any deception to cause him to act in unbelief, he acted in rebellion to the truth that he believed*. Adam fell and just like satan he was not able to get back to the place where he had fallen from. He now was a rebel and a slave to sin just like all of his children after him. There are three remaining questions that need to be asked and answered:
1. Why was Eve not charged with bringing sin into the world?
Eve was not charged with bringing sin into the world because she did not sin in rebellion against God. Eve was deceived into disobeying God’s command and so although she sinned, she did not sin in the way of satan the first rebellious one. It is impossible for Eve to bring the nature of rebellion to her seed because she never sinned in rebellion. Paul writes in 1 Timothy 1 that he himself was an example of one who sinned in ignorance and unbelief and because he didn’t sin in outright rebellion against God, he received mercy.
1 Timothy 1:13 (NASB) even though I was formerly a blasphemer and a persecutor and a violent aggressor. Yet I was shown mercy because I acted ignorantly in unbelief;
Eve received mercy from God because she did not sin willfully in rebellion. It was her seed that would be the Messiah and this was God’s grace and mercy towards her and through the Messiah that brought mercy towards us as the children of Adam. The fact that Eve did not bring sin into the world has absolutely nothing to do with what some teach is the place of the man having a priority role so that he was the sole one responsible for sin. This unfortunate teaching has permeated the church where many teach that because Adam was male he had some kind of special authority over the world as the sole ruler. This is just not true. The difference between Adam and Eve as far as the original sin and the curse that was brought into the world is solely because of the way that Adam sinned in rebellion. It has nothing to do with Adam taking the blame because of his maleness. God did not call Adam to take the blame for Eve’s sin. God called them both to account for their sin individually but their individual sin was committed in different ways and this difference was used by God to bring mercy into the world through the seed of the woman. So through Adam was brought inherited rebellion and through Eve was brought the mercy of God through the Messiah. There were two different reasons for sin and two different effects on the world.
2. Why is it very important to our faith to understand the “old man” nature that each one of us has inherited from Adam?
It is importance to understand the place that Adam had in bringing the “old man” nature of rebellion to each of us because Adam’s place of passing the inheritance of his own nature of rebellion to us is set up in Scripture as a type and contrast to the last Adam who is the Life-Giver who is able to pass to us the inheritance of H**is nature of His perfect and sinless life so that we can be reconciled to God through His blood.**
1 Corinthians 15:45 (NASB) So also it is written, “The first MAN, Adam, BECAME A LIVING SOUL.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit.
In the passage that I quoted above from Romans 5:14-19, Paul uses the fact of death coming to all of us through Adam to prove that Adam is a type of the last Adam who came into the world where each man as an original Adam had an eternal and universal effect on this world. If we remove the effect of the first Adam, what will we miss from God’s typology that has been provided by the last Adam? The universality of the last Adam is connected to the first Adam and even more since Christ is able to remove not just the sin of one man, but the transgressions of the many (Romans 5:16). The passage is an extremely important apologetic passage for the universality of Christ’s sacrifice, but if we remove the connection between the sin of the one man having an effect on all to bring them to be sinners, how will we use Paul’s connection to Christ having universal importance and effect?
3. Why is it important for Eve to have remained with her pre-fall ability to not sin after the fall so that she could remain as one who was never a rebellious sinner?
It is important that Eve did not take on a sin nature of rebellion for it was her seed alone that would be without inherited sin in order for the Messiah to be born sinless and without the natural inclination to sin as a slave to sin. Eve was not taken from Adam after he sinned and thus Eve was the only woman who did not have Adam’s old man nature. She was the only one that the Messiah could come through her own lineage. If Eve sinned in rebellion there would be no one left for the Messiah to come through. Adam was the only one kicked out of the garden because of his new rebellious nature. Adam could never go back to where he started as he had the nature of rebellion from his one sin. God kicked the one man Adam out of the garden because his new nature made him a threat to the tree of life which was now forbidden to both Adam and Eve. God had told them that they would surely die if they ate the fruit. God never prophesied that Eve might rebel and eat from the tree of life after the fall because Eve still had the ability to not sin. It was only Adam who possessed the nature of rebellion and who would act consistently with that nature. It was because of him that the garden was closed and because of Adam alone that the tree of life needed to be protected. Eve would have obeyed God’s new prohibition because she was no longer deceived and because she could obey. God prophesied that she would produce the seed that would be the Messiah and so we can know for certain that she did not end up in rebellion as a sinner like Adam with an old man nature. The Scriptures have told us the truth when they say that sin entered the world through one man. If Eve had given herself over to rebellion like Adam after she left the garden, she too would have brought sin into the world. The fact that the Scriptures remove Eve as having any part of bringing rebellion into the world shows us that God was able to take the evil that satan had planned for mankind and turn it around by God Himself destroying the destroyer through His act of mercy to the very one who sinned because of the deceiver’s deception. God receives the ultimate glory because He brought mercy to one who had sinned in her ignorance and unbelief. And God received the ultimate glory by bringing the Messiah into the world as the very seed of the woman who received His mercy. Do you see God’s plan? Do you see the difference between the sin of rebellion that has no way to get back to innocence and the unintentional sin that God covers over with the blood of the one true lamb of God? This is an important issue and I challenge us all to think this one through so that we can put all the pieces together to bring a full picture of the Messiah and what He has done.
Here is the link to the post where I use graphics to explain why it was necessary for the Messiah to be virgin born and why Mary was not sinless herself. It is a good background article for this post.
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2006/11/20/adam-as-head-of-the-family/
gengwall,
I am very pleased that you are allowing yourself to be open about Eve not having sinned in rebellion after the fall.
Either Gen 3:16 is exclusively about Adam and Eve and is inapplicable to any other marriages;
or Eve’s “desire” is exclusive to Eve and Adam’s “rule” is a condition of both his sons and daughters.
This is a false dilemma which is a logical fallacy. It doesn’t have to be a or b. Eve’s desire is not exclusive to Eve as men are to have this same desire and they are encouraged to “leave and cleave”.
Genesis 2:24 (NASB)
24 For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh.
The term “be joined” means:
(1) TO CLEAVE, TO ADHERE, specially firmly, as if with glue, TO BE GLUED,
Gesenius’ Hebrew and Chaldee lexicon to the Old Testament Scriptures (185).
Jesus represents the perfect example of a husband who left heaven to pay the price for his wife and He “cleaves” to her and promises that He will never leave her. His longing and desire is for her.
But for us – all of us humans get the “full meal deal” of the sin nature with the possibility of committing every sin. While it is relatively uncommon for women to be the abusers of men it is not unheard of. They too can have this nature if they follow the inclination of evil in that direction. But as our world shows, it is far more common for men to have this sin that manifests a stronghold in their lives because men are more apt to be aggressive and to want to control every situation. But it is not a “given” that all men will seek to rule and all women will love even when they are not loved back. There is an identifiable pattern for both but it is not a hard and fast rule.
So while Genesis 3:16 is specifically about the first humans and their life outside the garden, in this verse there is a pattern that we can identify in a good portion of men and women. We can learn something from this pattern that may reveal our own heart and help us to understand our weaknesses and struggles but it would also be wrong to force an application onto every male and every female. It is not true that one cannot be male unless he has a propensity to rule the female. Nor is it true that one cannot be female unless she only desires the good welfare of her husband. All of us are a mixture in some way of our two original parents and all of us are capable of both good and bad.
So the bottom line is that anyone who seeks to lord it over others is following the example of Adam. Jesus said that this is not to be the attitude among us. It is not to be the attitude of males nor is it to be the attitude of females.
And the fact that Adam brought sin into the world is not an indictment on every male. It is not because he was male that he sinned in this way. It is because he, like satan, chose individually and willfully to sin in rebellion. And we have been stuck with his nature, except that through the last Adam we now have freedom to live as though we are dead to this sin nature so that we can live in union with Christ and exemplify his righteousness by our changed lives.
gengwall,
You misunderstand. I am not saying that a and b are the only possibilities, I am saying they are the only possibilities I will accept as reasonable.
Alright, then it appears that you have your own predefined limits of reasonable possibilities. What do you find unreasonable about my view or about other possibilities?
If you are saying that the good “desire” in Eve exists equally in men and women I am happy. Of course, it still means the bad “rule” in Adam exists equally in both as well.
This does not follow. Now I do not know the hearts of other people so I can’t tell you what is in a person’s heart, but I can evaluate the outward actions. In country after country both Islamic and otherwise, men rule their women by both physical and psychological force. They do not allow them to be free people to chose their own way. I have read through a portion of several tractates in the Talmud and the “role” that women have for the most part is in the like sections of ownership of animals. It is undeniable that men have unrighteously taken a lordship rulership primarily over women but they are also doing the same thing to minorities and other men who do not fight back. Men excel in this sin and it isn’t until Christianity takes hold that the sin is held back in a large way. There are still issues with “Christian” hierarchists who want to keep the best portion of the God’s gifts for themselves alone, but it is also undeniable that when people come to Christ one of the areas that men are becoming sanctified is in the area of lordship over other human beings.
As far as what women’s sins are common to the female gender perhaps that is better expressed by those who are outside of our own blind spots. But I can tell you that I have met few women whose sin is in taking lordship over others. I have met more than my share of men who lives show this tendency in a strong way.
It depends on your definition of abuse. Physically, this is certainly true. But physical abuse is only one kind.
Usually one who is physically abusive is also verbally abusive, but women too can be verbally abusive.
What I was talking about mostly is illegal “lordship” or “rule” over another human being. Men in every generation have struggled with this sin and because their physical size gives them the advantage, they are the clear “winners” in this area.
Absolutely untrue. Women are easily as controlling as men. Again, the difference is how each gender goes about accomplishing control. Just because men’s controlling actions are more visible due to the fact that they are outwardly physical does not mean they are more numerous.
In context I was talking about aggression and control. I realize that women have been known to manipulation rather than outright control.
Cheryl – “So while Genesis 3:16 is specifically about the first humans and their life outside the garden, in this verse there is a pattern that we can identify in a good portion of men and women.”
But you have managed to still see this “pattern” as biased in favor of wives. To you the pattern is that wives are generally virtuous and husbands are generally villianous. That is what I can not accept as valid.
Actually you are not able to refute what I say at all until you understand it. I have never said that women are “generally” virtuous or that husbands are “generally” villainous. I do not accept that bias rendering of my view as valid either.
So the question is still in the end, did Eve become a rebellious sinner after she left the garden of Eden? If she did, what proof does the Scriptures give for this rebellion? And if she did not become rebellious because she had the ability to remain without sin (unlike us), then for what reason would it be important that she remained without sin?
What say ye?
Here is one more thing to throw at my readers. If there is no “old man” nature that comes through the line of Adam, then why was it absolutely necessary for Jesus to be virgin born? Thoughts?
Thanks again gengwall agreeing to move the discussion from this older post http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2010/03/07/why-was-eve-punished/ to my post on the sin nature. It is easier for me to keep tract of and with over 400 hundred comments it is difficult for new readers to process through all of them.
Cheryl – we clearly aren’t understanding each other. You keep taking examples from human history but, it seems to me, are trying to read them back into our universal sin nature to say that sin itself is apportioned unequally between men and women. I do not question that in certain times and certain places men have acted worse than women. But I refuse to believe that the general effect of sin on human nature, specifically as it applies to marriage, is biased toward men. Therefore I feel that Gen 3:16 is making a universal statement about sin and humanity, not about what particular cultures may or may not do.
But maybe we are saying the same thing in different ways. My objection is to any interpretation that elevates women over men morally, just as you would strenuously object to the comp interpretation of the verse which elevates men over women.
Now – you asked: ” What do you find unreasonable about my view or about other possibilities?” If your view holds a bias against men or for women, it would be that bias that I find unreasonable. It would not only be unprecedented in scripture when God speaks and teaches about marriage, but it would not accurately reflect the equal impact of a sin nature on Adam’s sons as well as his daughters. I still see such a bias in your thought process. But I may be reading you wrong. A statement that woudl put my mind at ease would be something like “Gen 3:16 teaches that men and women have an equal propensity to engage in sinful actions that are directly harmful to their spouse”.
You further asked:
“So the question is still in the end, did Eve become a rebellious sinner after she left the garden of Eden?” – I don’t know, and at this point I don’t much care. As I said, I am open to a virtuous Eve as long as she doesn’t predict women as a more virtuous gender.
“If she did, what proof does the Scriptures give for this rebellion?” – If she did, my response would be “no more than it gives for Adam’s future rebellion.” We disagree sharply on addtional witnesses. Again, I don’t know if we are at the point in the discussion to resume that particular conversation.
“And if she did not become rebellious because she had the ability to remain without sin (unlike us), then for what reason would it be important that she remained without sin?” – I’m not following.
gengwall,
Cheryl – we clearly aren’t understanding each other. You keep taking examples from human history but, it seems to me, are trying to read them back into our universal sin nature to say that sin itself is apportioned unequally between men and women.
Well, I do know for sure that are not understanding me. I didn’t say that “sin is apportioned unequally between men and women. I said that
we are all capable of any sin
. It is one “nature” after all and so we have a capability of acting out if we choose to do so. It just so happens that what is in mankind cannot be seen from our heart since no one sees it. Looking at mankind throughout history gives us a fuller picture to comment on what appears in common from one nation to another and one time to another. We both see that.
But I refuse to believe that the general effect of sin on human nature, specifically as it applies to marriage, is biased toward men.
I never said that. The general effect of sin on the human nature is that we all sin and no one gender is freer than the other of that sin.
But maybe we are saying the same thing in different ways. My objection is to any interpretation that elevates women over men morally, just as you would strenuously object to the comp interpretation of the verse which elevates men over women.
Well if we could find those who think that women are elevated over men morally, then we both can “have at them”. I do not believe that women are morally better than men.
If your view holds a bias against men or for women, it would be that bias that I find unreasonable.
I don’t hold a bias against men. Do you hold a bias against women? Just because sin came through the man doesn’t mean that all men are worse than women. After all we are all children of Adam and it isn’t until we become children of the Lord Jesus that we take on a new nature.
By the way, are you one of the ones who disagrees that sin came through Adam and that we have a sin nature because of that or do you think that all of us were born in perfection without a sin nature?
It would not only be unprecedented in scripture when God speaks and teaches about marriage, but it would not accurately reflect the equal impact of a sin nature on Adam’s sons as well as his daughters.
I don’t believe that the silence of Adam at the fall is a teaching about marriage and neither is God’s curse on the earth a general teaching about marriage. I do find a general teaching on marriage in Genesis 2:24. I do not find Jesus or any of the other apostles using Genesis 3:16 as a general teaching on marriage so it must not be foundational to how to function in our God-ordained marriages.
I still see such a bias in your thought process. But I may be reading you wrong.
You are reading me wrong.
A statement that woudl put my mind at ease would be something like “Gen 3:16 teaches that men and women have an equal propensity to engage in sinful actions that are directly harmful to their spouse”.
How could I say this if what Eve did wasn’t sinful? However I do believe that men and women have an equal propensity to engage in sinful actions that are directly harmful to their spouse, although Genesis 3:16 doesn’t teach that. If one wants to make Eve as sinful and having harmful actions toward her spouse, then one would have to back it up by the Scriptures.
“So the question is still in the end, did Eve become a rebellious sinner after she left the garden of Eden?” – I don’t know, and at this point I don’t much care. As I said, I am open to a virtuous Eve as long as she doesn’t predict women as a more virtuous gender.
As I said Eve is unique. All of us are Adam’s children. Her seed alone is Jesus.
“If she did, what proof does the Scriptures give for this rebellion?” – If she did, my response would be “no more than it gives for Adam’s future rebellion.” We disagree sharply on addtional witnesses. Again, I don’t know if we are at the point in the discussion to resume that particular conversation.
You haven’t answered my points but it appears to me that you may be taking this all personally and it isn’t Adam that you are defending but all men.
“And if she did not become rebellious because she had the ability to remain without sin (unlike us), then for what reason would it be important that she remained without sin?” – I’m not following.
I am asking if there is any reason why her sinless nature would be necessary. Would her seed be touched by her sin if she had rebellion? If not, why not? Remember that there was only one seed of the woman, not seeds. Jesus is the only full offspring of the woman. If He could come through a sinful and rebellious Eve, then for what reason would it be necessary that He have no human father?
Lin,
On the past post http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2010/03/07/why-was-eve-punished/comment-page-4 that we are now answering here on the issue of sin here, you said:
Syllogism of your premise
P1a – Adam’s sin nature is to be prone to rule over women
P2a – All who have a human father have Adam’s sin nature
Ca – All who have a human father are prone to rule over womenP1b – All who have a human father are prone to rule over women (Ca)
P2b – All women have a human father
Cb – All women are prone to rule over women
Interesting that I see Paula’s thinking in your comment. Did this come from Paula? Is so, she is welcome to come here and challenge me herself if she thinks I am wrong.
Now let’s look at the problems with what has been written.
P1a – Adam’s sin nature is to be prone to rule over women
This is not what is claimed. God said that Adam will rule over his wife. His nature is not to rule – his nature is to sin. One of the ways that he would sin would be to take an unauthorized rule over the woman. There has been no claim that he will take that rule over every woman.
P2a – All who have a human father have Adam’s sin nature
Adam’s sin nature does not mean that the person will commit every act of sin. It is a propensity to sin, not a propensity to do one particular sin just like Adam did.
Ca – All who have a human father are prone to rule over women
This is not the claim. This is the correct claim – All who have a human father are prone to sin.
P2b – All women have a human father
Cb – All women are prone to rule over women
This is just plain wrong and nothing like what I have claimed. Let’s not let Paula misrepresent my view. All women and men who have Adam as their ancestral father are prone to sin because they all inherit his sin nature. They don’t all inherit his way of ruling.
These are the inescapable conclusions of your arguments. They are valid syllogisms whose conclusions flow properly from the premises. The only way to change it, is to change the premise.
I recognize this as Paula’s writing. And usually Paula is wonderful in her logic as she is a very smart woman. She is very wrong on this one and she has claimed an invalid argument on my part. Perhaps she would like to come here herself to argue her point. That would be the logical and respectful thing to do if her argument has validity.
you must present scriptural support for claiming that women do not inherit this, or that only their eggs are sinless. Neither is supportable by scripture, or biology.
I am not claiming that women are sinless. I am claiming that all (including all women) are to be “shut up under sin” as the Scripture teaches. And I submit that Scripture states that the Messiah had to come only through the woman’s seed. If you disagree with this (and since biology cannot identify the sin nature gene) I would like to ask you why the Messiah had to come from the woman’s seed alone?
Here is my claim http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2006/11/20/adam-as-head-of-the-family/
You have redefined “sin nature” to mean a uniquely MALE quality, which females obviously cannot inherit, and that makes women devoid of a sin nature. That is the obvious conclusion of your premise.
Apparently Paula has not paid much attention to the post I keep linking to or she would not have made this statement. Females all inherit sin except for the first woman Eve who did not inherit Adam’s sin. It is only through her seed that the Messiah can come.
We must take a deep look at ‘inherited sin’. The Fall was horrible. It changed everything. Even for Eve.
Again I am assuming that this came from Paula. Scripture never says that the fall came through Eve or that sin came into the world through Eve. While she had great heartache because of the fall, she is never blamed. If we blame her, then we are doing so inappropriately for it was to be through the seed of the first woman that we could have salvation.
Lin,
I would really encourage you to leave Paula’s writing for her to present here if she would like. I am not sure why she would not come here herself to defend her own view. If she believes that she was created perfect and that she can stop from sinning because she has no sin nature, then she can come here and present her view.
Lin, thanks for always being willing to argue in a passionate way with grace and respect. It is very much appreciated on this blog.
Questions going through my mind-
Where did Jesus get his humanity (perfect humanity/perfect nature) from? Are we born perfect or not born perfect? Were Adam and Eve made perfect or not?
Why do we die?
Hopefully death/dying reminds us of our nature which is passing away.
Mark,
You said:
I appreciate your attempt to defend the doctrine of original sin. I agree wholeheartedly here with you.
I take this as a kind word from you and it feels really good to have someone speaking out in agreement. Thank you, Mark for taking the time to let me know that you are agree with me.
You said “God never prophesied that Eve might rebel and eat from the tree of life after the fall because Eve still had the ability to not sin.”
I wonder how you hadle texts such as these with your theology…
Eph 2 “And you were dead in the trespasses and sins 2 in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience— 3 among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind. “
1 John 3:4 “sin is lawlessness”
In regard to the Ephesians 2 verse, this is talking about the children of Adam as “by nature” children of wrath. This is exactly what I have been talking about – the nature of the “old man”. But this cannot be used for Eve since she did not inherit Adam’s nature.
Regarding 1 John 3:4, sin is lawlessness but God Himself has defined two ways to come into this “lawlessness”. There is unintentional sin that can come through deception and there is defiant sin which is done with full knowledge of the truth of sin. The Bible lists Eve in the category as one who fell into sin through deception. She is never even once listed as one who was in rebellion while Adam is placed in that category.
As I read the Scriptures I see that so often God places opposites together to give a message of God’s way and man’s way. For example there is Sarah’s child and Hagar’s child. There is Jacob and Essau. Then there is Adam and Eve. One brought a curse on the earth and the other saw the deception that they had fallen into and accepted God’s promise to punish the one who had deceived her.
I’m not convinced that the bible ever gives the indication that any single person has ever had the capacity to ‘not sin’ after the fall, even Eve. What texts support the idea that Eve was able to not sin after her original sin. Please cite your texts
Actually I am not claiming that Eve did not have the capacity to ‘not sin’ after the fall. In fact she had the capacity to sin before the fall just as Adam did. What I am claiming is that she had the capacity to not sin before the fall and after the fall since she did not sin in rebellion. I am also claiming that while Adam had the capacity not to sin before the fall, he became a sinner with a sin nature after the fall and he became a slave to sin. Do you see the difference between what I am saying and what you thought I said?
Along that line I have said that for Eve to have a rebellious sin nature after the fall would require a witness of Scripture to this sin nature. I am not claiming that she could not sin, but I am claiming that for Eve to sin she would either have to be deceived into sin or she would have to sin in rebellion. There is no indication that she sinned in rebellion after the fall. And as far as being deceived again this seems unlikely. First of all she now had her eyes opened to the deceiver. Secondly the deceiver was condemned by his original deception of Eve. How was he going to deceive her again? I also see no evidence of this. I believe that a person created perfect without a sin nature can live a sinless life. Jesus did. Since Eve did not inherit Adam’s nature, why could she not continue to live a life without rebellion? Without a charge of rebellion against her, I have to consider her innocent until proven guilty. I would ask, what do you believe to be evidence of her rebellion?
Now this may simply be terminology issues. I agree that no-one is responsible for another’s sin, Adams or otherwise. But are you saying that children do not suffer the punishment for the sins of their parents (on earth i mean, not eternally). If so, how do you understand these texts…
2 Kings 23: 25-27 “Before him there was no king like him, who turned to the LORD with all his heart and with all his soul and with all his might, according to all the Law of Moses, nor did any like him arise after him.26 Still the LORD did not turn from the burning of his great wrath, by which his anger was kindled against Judah, because of all the provocations with which Manasseh had provoked him. 27 And the LORD said, “I will remove Judah also out of my sight, as I have removed Israel, and I will cast off this city that I have chosen, Jerusalem, and the house of which I said, My name shall be there.”
First off my discussion had been that the Father’s sin’s would not be placed on the account of the son so that we are not punished for our Father’s sin. Having said that I will deal with the passages you brought up.
In the passage of 2 Kings 23, God is showing that even though there is a good king in the land, and this good king forcefully destroys all the idols, the mediums, the spirtists and all of the other abdominations including the places where the Jews were burning their children to Baal, if there is no turning from evil from the people, even a good king cannot save Judah. There is a price to pay for the evil that they have done and the forced cleansing of the evil from a good king will not stop God’s anger against the people.
Here Judah is punished for the apostasy of an earlier king Manasseh. The effects of the sin of the king result in the destruction of Jerusalem, regardless of Josiah’s reforms.
It is the people who did the evil. Even though they had been encouraged by an evil king who set up much of the apostacy, it was the people who followed the evil with their whole heart. God wasn’t punishing repentant people. And God wasn’t punishing innocent people for the sins of their fathers. Let’s see that:
2 Kings 22:3 (NASB)
3 Now in the eighteenth year of King Josiah, the king sent Shaphan, the son of Azaliah the son of Meshullam the scribe, to the house of the LORD saying,
It was the 18th year of the reign of King Josiah when the scroll of the law was found. When King Josiah found out what was written in this law he was humble before the Lord and tore his clothes and wept before the Lord at the evil that had been exposed. It was then that he went out and destroyed all the idols and the places of evil that had been set up and where the people were doing what was evil in the eyes of the Lord. For this God promised that he would not see the punishment that God would bring to the people:
2 Kings 22:15–20 (NASB)
15 She said to them, “Thus says the LORD God of Israel, ‘Tell the man who sent you to me,
16 thus says the LORD, “Behold, I bring evil on this place and on its inhabitants, even all the words of the book which the king of Judah has read.
17 “Because they have forsaken Me and have burned incense to other gods that they might provoke Me to anger with all the work of their hands, therefore My wrath burns against this place, and it shall not be quenched.” ’
18 “But to the king of Judah who sent you to inquire of the LORD thus shall you say to him, ‘Thus says the LORD God of Israel, “Regarding the words which you have heard,
19 because your heart was tender and you humbled yourself before the LORD when you heard what I spoke against this place and against its inhabitants that they should become a desolation and a curse, and you have torn your clothes and wept before Me, I truly have heard you,” declares the LORD.
20 “Therefore, behold, I will gather you to your fathers, and you will be gathered to your grave in peace, and your eyes will not see all the evil which I will bring on this place.” ’ ” So they brought back word to the king.
So this good king would not live to see the punishment but the people who did the wrong doing would be punished. This was in the 18th year of Josiah and he reigned for 31 years so it was only 13 years later that Josiah died. Then evil reigned again and the people did not obey God. While the original evil was to be punished from the evil that a former king instituted, it was the people who followed and did the evil and they did not repent nor were their hearts softened to God as Josiah’s heart was during his reign of good. We do not find “innocent” and “repentant” people being punished for the sins of their fathers.
I will continue answering in the next comment.
I received an email from a friend who was interested in dialogging on the issue of sin but didn’t want to post on the blog so I am going to address their concerns/questions to me here for everyone to read but to keep them anonymous.
But for me, the whole idea of “original sin”/inherited “sin nature” opens a can of worms and it appears that it perhaps perpetuates the misogynist view of Genesis in the long run. It still puts “males” at the center – in turn giving some creedance to male’s having a type of ultimate responsibility for the mess of humanity.
It isn’t “males” that brought sin into the world but one person. That one person didn’t have a sole kingship that made them responsible. In fact I am sure that if it was Eve who had sinned in rebellion she would have been charged with bringing sin into the world. This is not a male/female issue but about one sinner.
The whole doctrine seems to have originated with Augustine’s interpretation of Paul’s (my friend put in the Greek, but unfortunately my blog doesn’t allow the Greek to be shown) as meaning “in whom all sinned” in Romans 5:12. Modern translations agree that its proper meaning is “because.” According to Augustine all sinned “in Adam”, which he understood as meaning that because Adam sinned every other human being, each of his descendants, is counted as a sinner.
This is one of the ways that some have understood original sin, but this is not Biblical. Adam’s sin did not become ours. The correct translation is “because”. Here is the difference. We didn’t sin “in Adam” as if we participated in his sin. We were “in Adam” when he sinned so that the consequences of his rebellion would be felt by those who had yet to be born. We experienced the results of the poison and our DNA was changed from perfect to disposed toward sin.
For me, there is a problem with the fundamental idea that we inherit sin at birth as part of our human nature and if Christ is not “fully human” and “fully God”, then to me, Christianity has a serious flaw.
I have a problem with that too and this is not what I believe. We don’t inherit “sin”. We are sinless when we are born. But we have a bent towards sin although we have not committed any sin. Do you see the difference? I too have read from those who believe that we inherit Adam’s sin and this cannot be because God has clearly said that He does not punish the son for the father’s sin.
Here is where the doctrine of a “sin nature” creates a problem for me: if Jesus was born with a different nature than the rest of mankind, then whatever else he accomplished, he could not recapitulate our lives on our behalf.
My friend, let me say it this way. If Jesus was born with the same nature as the rest of mankind, then He couldn’t be the Savior. He had a different nature (sinless) but that doesn’t mean that it wasn’t human. It was the exact same nature as we were created to have. It was the same as the first Adam and thus Jesus is rightly called the “last Adam”. Jesus and Adam are compared in Scripture and both became human without sin. Adam changed that by rebelling, but Jesus fulfilled all righteousness without a single sin. It was the same beginning but different ending. We couldn’t say that a man who had Adam’s nature at the beginning (sinless) he couldn’t pay for our sins. I say that he had to have the original nature that God made mankind to be or we would have been left in our sins.
He could, perhaps, purchase us. But having purchased us, he could not also heal us.
Well, Adam the perfect man couldn’t heal us. In fact the Scripture says that no man can ransom another for the price is too great. But because Jesus was man AND God, as God He could heal us and as the God-man he could pay for our sins in full.
His walk was then fundamentally different than Adam’s.
His walk was not fundamentally different than Adam’s. In fact his walk was the exact same as Adam’s in the beginning. His walk was vastly different from Adam’s after Adam sinned.
If we believe that Jesus was fully human, and yet lived in this world without sinning, we have a logical and a theological problem. How do we explain that Jesus never received either the guilt of sin from Adam, or a sinful nature which caused Him to sin? “For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are–yet was without sin.”
This is where Jesus was different than Adam’s end. Jesus never gave in to temptation and His temptations were “in every way just as we are” while Adam was tempted to rebel in only one thing. So Jesus was far greater than Adam and He understands all of our weaknesses.
How can we be guilty for a “corrupt nature” with which we were born, and over which we had no control, and for which we are not personally responsible?
We will be condemned for turning away God’s antidote to our sin. While we may not be able to do much about living perfectly without sin, we can accept God’s revealed word and have faith in Him. It is for rejecting God that people go to hell in the first place. And secondly we go to hell for sinning in things that we do have control of. While we cannot always control our thoughts we can control our actions. Those who commit adultery and then say that they couldn’t help themselves as they are not guilty because they had no control are simply in error.
God has placed us all under sin so that we would all be in a position to have faith in Him instead of earning our way to God. Some may say that He should not have done it this way, but it is fair that all of need God and need a Savior and if we look to Him in faith, we will receive salvation and that is fair.
It seems inconsistent with all just ideas of God that after Adam and Eve, He forms all the rest of us with a nature which with absolute uniformity leads us to sin and destruction. The claim is made, “The present state of human nature cannot therefore be its normal and original condition. We are a fallen race.” But the more I study this, that just seems to be a means to transfer the blame from God to Adam, or through the sophistry of the “Federal Headship” of Adam, to all of us as really present “in” Adam when he originally sinned, and then to find all of us “responsible” and “guilty” for the sin “we” committed “in Adam.”
I do not agree with the “Federal headship” of Adam and that we are guilty for Adam’s sin. One pastor told me that his wife had a couple of miscarriages and that he didn’t know if those unborn babies were in hell. When I balked at this statement and told him that unborn babies could not commit sin, he stated that they were guilty of sin in Adam and that if they went to hell they deserved it. Honestly I was appalled. This is not Biblical teaching. Unborn babies do not have “Adam’s sin”. They are innocent of sin and God condemns no man or baby for Adam’s sin.
I think that the error that has been taught in the name of original sin has tainted the doctrine that we have an “old man” nature that we inherited from the man who brought sin into the world. We don’t inherit sin. We inherit a sin nature. If we don’t understand that so many Bible verses don’t make sense for the “flesh” is talked about as sinful and needs to be put to death.
If there are any others who would like their questions/comments placed here but don’t want to go on the record, I don’t mind at all. Just send your questions to me and I will make sure that they are placed here anonymously.
This is such a huge topic for many people. It is important for us to think these things through Biblically as well as to reject the bad arguments of the past.
gengwall,
You said:
God: Eve, there are some unfortunate consequences that are going to affect you personally because of the situation. You will have an increase in sorrow and in pregnancy and raising children will be generally not fun. This is all that jerk Adam’s fault, of course. Yet you will not succumb to what would be perfectly justified anger toward him. No indeed. Instead, you will continue to desire to connect deeply with him on the soul level in such a way that you are best friends; a level where you can share all your hopes and dreams with him. Yet, can you believe this, that dirty rotten no good so and so will not only not appreciate your efforts to be his soul mate, but he will take advantage of your goodness and purity and lack of ill will and instead dominate and oppress you all of your days. There is more, I’m sad to say. You, being female, will pass on your goodness to all your daughters. Oh sure, now and then one of them might go against her better nature and fall to her sin nature that she inherits from that misogynistic pig husband of yours, but by and large all women will naturally be kind hearted and model this pure desire you have for Adam. But since Adam is both evil and male, he will pass on only his abusive, ruling nature to men and they will subject their wives in the future just as Adam will subject you.
Now, that is quite dramatic, but it is in essence the argument that Cheryl puts forth as the correct interpretation of Gen 3:16.
Nope. Honestly I hear your own pain in this. It seems to me that you think that just because you are a male that egalitarians (and me?) look on you as a male, receiving only evil from Adam’s nature and we women are perfect and unaffected by sin. I don’t know where your reset button is, but if I could find it I would likely push it to clear out the bad thoughts. I am not against you and I don’t know anyone here who is against you. And I will say it once more….our father Adam brought sin into the world and all of us are influenced by a nature that causes us to rebel.
And the biggest reset button is our Lord Jesus. He is able to change us into His image. Now men don’t get more of the image of Jesus than women do or vice-versa. We all share the same human first father and we as Christians will all share in the same Jesus as our Lord and Savior.
see Gen 3:16 as more balanced than that. But I still must postpone my interpretation and first look at the rest of scriptural teaching (not biblical history) when it deals with
marriage.
Oh my goodness, I hope so. That was a terribly unfair rendering.
When God instructs us about marriage in scripture, He always maintains a balance between husband and wife. Genesis 2:24 is the best example of this. Although He created them distinctly male and female, the two are equal and create, in godly marriage, a one flesh union. 1 Cor 7 is also a stark example, with Paul addressing husband and wife with instructions to be explicitly equal in relation to each other in sexual matters. We see the balance in Song of Solomon, where neither lover is dominant and both of their desires are unconditionally met. And we see it in Ephesians 5 and 1 Peter 3, where, although making gender distinctions, the instructions to each gender have equal weight and produce balanced results to the marriage. In all of these cases God’s teaching on marriage is gender balanced, with neither gender being better or worse, or getting more or less, than the other.
I don’t have any problem with this.
Why would God deviate from the pattern here? Why would God all of a sudden elevate one gender while denigrating the other?
Oh, I see the problem. You think that because God says something that He is proposing it. But that is not the case. God is saying what Eve will do and He is telling Eve what her husband will do.
Notice two things here. He isn’t telling her that any of this is what He wants. He is predicting their human wills.
Secondly notice that He doesn’t tell Adam what he will do. Why? Because Adam doesn’t need to be warned about something that he can’t control. So what is this all about? It is about two people who are one in flesh in their marriage union dealing with a bad situation out of the garden. What has this got to do with the good things that are set up for all marriages?
Moreover, why would God predict a pattern of behavior that is neither lived out in real life human experience or addressed in subsequent teaching?
Do you mean why would God predict Adam’s bad behavior to Eve? Because she has the option of whether to leave the garden or not. He isn’t forcing her out. It isn’t going to be a rose garden out there with the sin cursed earth and the one who brought sin into the world. Is God predicting that all men will rule women? Whether this is something that a lot of men do or not doesn’t mean that God is telling Eve that this is what her sons are going to do to her. God is specifically talking to one person (Eve) and telling her about her own husband.
It just doesn’t make any sense unless Gen 3:16 has nothing to do with marriage; unless it is exclusively about Adam and Eve. But nobody suggests that that is the case.
I think people have taken Genesis 3:16 far beyond the prediction that God made. Now if God had said to Eve that Adam and all her sons will rule her, then that would have been a double warning for her and a predictor about all men. But is God actually telling Eve that all men will rule her?
Gen 3:16 is the sin axis around which Gen 2:24 and Eph 5 rotate – the ideal of Gen 2:24 on one pole, the path to return to the ideal on the other pole of Eph 5. Of course, for this to be true, one would need to establish that Eve’s “desire” is sinful.
So it seems like you have a package deal that would fall to pieces if Eve was not sinful. I don’t know, my friend, but if I had to make a woman sinful without a second witness, I think I would drop my package deal on Genesis 3:16. For if for you to be right, you have to make her sinful, then your desire to be right is going to be a stumbling block to see anything other than what you want to see in the passage.
On conjunctions – Cheryl is correct that the conjunctions could be translated “yet”, but that is only one possibility. If the verse says what she says it says, then her conjunctions are correct. But you can’t decide what the conjunction must be and then determine the meaning of the conjoined phrases. You have to determine the meaning of the phrases and then the conjunctions fall in line. It is just as likely that phrases 2 and 3 are not subsequent and antithetical to each preceding phrase, but are instead simply items 2 and 3 in a list of consequences and not so intimately related to the preceding phrases. So “and” is just as valid an interpretation.
It isn’t just a conjunction, it is a coordinating conjunction.

..therefore the connection between the parts is established and it isn’t just a list of unrelated events.
to continue with gengwall’s comments:
On “desire” – we continue to use that word because it is in all the modern translations, but we all know that “desire” is somewhat inadequate. The correct term is more likely “turning”. Other synonyms may be “inclination”, or “attention”, or “interest”, or “focus”. The point is that whatever “desire” is, it can be positive or negative based on context.
I have not yet found a single Hebrew lexicon that lists “turning” as a viable option. It is in the text but just not for the for this word. But I do agree that the context will determine the meaning. We agree here.
On prepositions – This “desire” or “turning” is almost unanimously viewed as “to” or “toward” Adam, and justifiably so because that is the general meaning of the preposition being used. But, that preposition can also mean “against” as it does in Gen 4:8 when Cain rises “against” Abel. In cases where the two actors in the phrase are antagonists, against is a proper and often more appropriate translation. It could work in Gen 4:7 as well, and maybe should be used: “Its (sin’s) desire (or turning) is against you (Cain) and you must rule over it”. Certainly, the element of antagonists is satisfied and the verse does not lose any meaning or power when “against” is substituted for “for” or “toward”.
I agree that when there are antagonists that there is can be the meaning of against for the preposition.
Cheryl acknowledges this usage but insists that there is no antagonist in Gen 3:16 to justify it there. I am incredulous at the suggestion that Adam is not antagonistic to Eve. Not only has he brought humanity to this point through his rebellion, and caused significant and painful consequences to Eve, but the future, which the verse is explicitly addressing, will be one where he engages in an oppressive and abusive rule over her. In the future, Adam and Eve will absolutely be antagonists. So, Eve’s “turning” could absolutely be against Adam.
But Adam’s antagonism cannot be considered. I am not at all suggesting that Adam is not antagonistic toward Eve, but you cannot change the subject around. A woman who has a sin nature would certainly be antagonistic toward Adam but you cannot make Eve into a sinner by suggesting that she cannot help but sin. There must be something else to make this an absolute. Also notice something that is against your position. Eve’s desire is listed first and the coordinating conjunction is in the direction from longing to rule. If God wanted to tell us that Eve would respond to Adam’s rule with antagonism, then God would have placed Adam’s rule first and then Eve’s desire after that as a result of his rule. But with the order that it is written, her desire cannot be taken as a result of his rule, but something that is there first.
On sin nature – Cheryl’s trump card is that there is no second witness to Eve sinning outside the garden so whatever “desire” is, it can not be claimed with scriptural support to be sinful. I counter that Adam’s “rule” also has no second witness, and although Cheryl has suggested numerous scriptural solutions to that challenge, they are woefully unconvincing. I, on the other hand, contend that God is sufficient witness to Himself. God is not a false prophet, and so there needs be no second witness to a prophecy about Adam’s sinful rule that proceeds directly and audibly from God. The same is true for any sinful behavior on Eve’s part. We can quibble about rebellion and deception all we want, but if God is saying Eve sinned, we’d best believe it.
We both agree the Hebrew word for rule means a lording it, or mastery of another person and that is sinful. What we both agree that the word used for Eve is not necessarily a negative word. God cannot be made to say that Eve is sinful no matter how hard you try. The word order is wrong, it is a coordinating conjunction, not just a conjunction listing unrelated words in unrelated order. And God is not saying that Eve “sinned” a second time. If she was a rebellious sinner she would also have been kicked out of the garden.
I think that you need to work harder to get a second witness for God’s word with the inspired words, the inspired grammar and the exact word order (not the rearranging of cause and effect as you have made in the passage) cannot be used as a witness against Eve. I am open to hearing a valid witness to “longing” as a bad thing. But so far you haven’t presented anything that would hold up in court. And I am unwilling to attach sin onto the woman without a Biblical charge of sin that will hold up to the required two or three witnesses. I do not want to meet Eve in heaven and tell her that I charged her with sin because it made my thoughts on marriage fit. That may be a good reason to believe it, but it isn’t good enough in my opinion. Like I said, I could be wrong , but I would like to see the evidence that I am wrong.
So, my view of Gen 3:16 is that it is God’s prophecy about the destruction, due to sin’s influence in the world, of godly marriage as testified to in Gen 2:24. Both Adam and Eve, (and subsequent husbands AND wives) are party to this destruction – Adam through unloving “rule” and Eve through a disrespectful “turning”.
And what disrespectful “turning” against my husband are you charging me with? I would like to see the evidence you have against all women.
We can return to a Gen 2 model of marriage, but only if we recognize that both Husband and Wife have Gen 3 described flaws that need correction.>
Yes, please do tell us what the flaws are from Genesis 3 that God is charging against all women. I would be interested to hear it. I would also like to know if you have a second witness to this “flaw” or if Genesis 3:16 is the lone charge against all wives?
Well, this has certainly turned out to be an interesting discussion. Certainly passionate and thought-provoking and I think has pushed us into the passage deeper than even I thought to go. Good going!
Cheryl,
Thanks for your answers. A few more comments.
- First off- good on you for correcting my wrong biblical quote, sorry about that. However I can’t see in Num 14 how the text is saying that the generations are evil. Likewise I can’t see how 2 Kings is relating to the whole of Israel. It specifically calls into view Menassah. Not only that, if your interpretation would be to work you would have to say that every single person in Israel was apostate. There is no room in your theology to understand how the righteous amongst the nation still suffered because of the majority. Lamentations I think makes this clear. There were people in Israel who were faithful to the covenant, althought the majority (and the kings) were not. The same can be seen with Elijah, when God reserves 7000 for himself who do not bow the knee to Baal. To me the covenant was communial. The nation as a whole was to abide by it- especially the leaders (kings). When they were unfaithful, the nation suffered for that sin, even those who were righteous (though few). This same paradigm seems consistent with what the bible teaches about generational sin. Although person b is not responsible for person a’s sin, he/she may still suffer the consequences of it. Your thoughts?
- I am glad you are not supporting universalism. It appears we again agree on this. Frankly I am astounded that you even have to defend the doctrine of original sin. Maybe that is a cultural thing in Canada/US. It seems pretty clear to me in the bible the nature of our depravity. Not only that Pelagianism was wiped out early on as heretical teaching by the church. It appears however that it still runs rampid. I applaud you for defending the bible here.
3. About the incarnation. First I must confess that I believe that this doctrine is probably the hardest to understand, even above the Trinity. How Jesus could leave glory, humble himself to earth and be both fully God and fully man is very difficult to understand, let alone explain. However I don’t see what you have said as solving the difficulty. You seemed to imply that not accepting your approach diminishes Jesus humanity- I don’t think it does. Jesus is fully human because he humbled himself to become human. The bible declares that he was tempted in everyway like us, so he was fully human, yet he withheld temptation. The reason I believe he withheld was because he was fully God. God cannot sin therefore Jesus could not have sinned, even though he was tempted to sin because of his humanity (this is where the incarnation gets messy). Your view makes it theoretically possible that Jesus could have sinned and I appreciate what you are saying because you are trying to understand how his humanity worked. But to imply that Jesus could have sinned is to deny that he was fully God, not able to sin. It also implies that God is able to sin theoretically and that he is changeable, both of which the bible denies. So I must protest again that emphasising this stuff about sin natures doesn’t solve any issues. I think it probably creates more. Not only that, but the bible is silent on this issue. It never says that Jesus was born of a virgin because only Mary did not pass on a corrupted nature. You are basically speculating on the issue. But I can see why you so it, because you need the incarnation to support your understanding of the banishment and sin, but I don’t think it works. - Finally I would just like to point out how you understand the seed of the woman in Gen 3. you said “It was God who said that the seed of the woman would defeat the serpent.” Now I don’t think this is actually correct. The verse in Gen does not say that the seed of the woman would ‘crush’ the head of the serpent. The NIV is unhelpful here. The Hebrew uses the exact same word for the serpent and the woman, namely the serpent’s seed will bruise the heel of the woman’s seed, and the woman’s seed would bruise the head of the serpents seed. Nothing in this verse indicates that the woman’s seed would be victorious or crush the serpent. All this protoevangelium stuff is read back into the verse from Christian heritage. I think the point of the verse is to show the enmity between the two offspring, the corruption of relationships because of sin, firstly between God and people, then between people and people and finally between people and animals. To say that one is victorious over the other is eisegesis not exegesis.
5. That said I am not saying that Jesus did not conquer over Satan, I believe that to be true, but the specific verse in Gen 3 grammatically does not say this, it’s read into the verse. Jesus conquering over Satan is established from other passages not Gen 3.
Mark,
You said:
- About the incarnation. First I must confess that I believe that this doctrine is probably the hardest to understand, even above the Trinity. How Jesus could leave glory, humble himself to earth and be both fully God and fully man is very difficult to understand, let alone explain. However I don’t see what you have said as solving the difficulty. You seemed to imply that not accepting your approach diminishes Jesus humanity- I don’t think it does. Jesus is fully human because he humbled himself to become human.
Mark, I think you are confusing things here. Jesus’ humbling Himself deals with his Deity. This explains how He could set aside his right to act independently as God.
The bible declares that he was tempted in everyway like us, so he was fully human, yet he withheld temptation.
Temptation doesn’t make one human. The angels were tempted to rebel but they weren’t human. Jesus’ humanity in a kinship is highly important in the Scriptures. This shows that He didn’t just come as a separate creation that wasn’t related to us, but that he was born in our form.
If you look carefully at Romans 1:3 you will see a necessary fact about his humanity:
Romans 1:3 (NASB)
3 concerning His Son, who was born of a descendant of David according to the flesh,
Jesus had to be a descendant of David. It wasn’t good enough for Him just to be human. He had to be of a specific lineage.
The reason I believe he withheld was because he was fully God. God cannot sin therefore Jesus could not have sinned, even though he was tempted to sin because of his humanity (this is where the incarnation gets messy).
The problem with this reasoning is that it not only makes the temptation invalid, but it makes Jesus really not to be like us. Remember that God cannot be tempted? It is only because He was also human, that Jesus could be tempted. There had to be something other than his being God that stopped Him from sinning otherwise how can we look to Him as one who suffered our temptations? His sinless nature (from being the seed of the woman) made Him able to not sin but it did not prevent Him from sinning. He would have been just like Adam was in the beginning. Adam didn’t have to sin, but Adam was able to sin if he chose to. Jesus did not have a sin nature, so Jesus did not have to sin. And Jesus as a man looked to God in keeping Him clean from committing sin. We can look to Jesus as our example and follow Him in trusting God to keep us clean.
Look at how Jesus handled temptation:
Hebrews 2:18 (NASB)
18 For since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is able to come to the aid of those who are tempted.
Hebrews 5:7–8 (NASB)
7 In the days of His flesh, He offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save Him from death, and He was heard because of His piety.
8 Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered.
Now some think that being “saved from death” means that Jesus was praying that He would not have to go to the cross, but this is not correct for the next part says that “He was heard because of His piety”. God didn’t save Jesus from dying on the cross, but God did save Him from the death that comes from sin. God saved Him from being tempted to the point of sinning. As a man He looked to God for His help and God heard Him. Jesus is our true High Priest who has suffered like we suffered yet without sin. He didn’t sin because He is God. He didn’t sin because He looked to God in His temptations. All of this shows the importance of Jesus’ being a sinless human that comes through His humanity and not in spite of it.
Your view makes it theoretically possible that Jesus could have sinned and I appreciate what you are saying because you are trying to understand how his humanity worked. But to imply that Jesus could have sinned is to deny that he was fully God, not able to sin.
This shows that you don’t understand the dual nature of Jesus. He was fully and completely human and fully and completely God. As God He was not able to sin, but He laid aside His right to act independently as God and He lived His life as a man. As a man he was able to sin just like the first perfect man was able to sin. If as a man He was not able to sin, then He wasn’t really human.
It also implies that God is able to sin theoretically and that he is changeable, both of which the bible denies.
Again you don’t seem to understand that dual nature of Jesus. Do you remember that the Bible says that God is not a man that he could lie? Well, God isn’t a man. But God can take on humanity so that the humanity itself is not an addition to His Deity but an addition to his personhood. So in the form of God, he cannot sin, but in the form of humanity He had to be able be tempted. What He did was what Adam should have been able to do if Adam had been faithful and had looked to God for help. There is no temptation that can force us to sin if we are living in the Spirit and putting our trust in God.
So I must protest again that emphasising this stuff about sin natures doesn’t solve any issues. I think it probably creates more.
I don’t know how far along in your pastoral studies you are Mark, but I hope that when you finish you will understand that the full humanity of Jesus and His being without sin from conception is highly important and is worth studying, worth debating and worthy of acceptance for it gives us reason for the hope that lies within us.
Not only that, but the bible is silent on this issue. It never says that Jesus was born of a virgin because only Mary did not pass on a corrupted nature. You are basically speculating on the issue.
What the Bible does show is that it was a necessity for Jesus to be born of a virgin. It is when one studies why Jesus could not have a human father, that the sin nature that comes through Adam becomes clear and understandable.
But I can see why you so it, because you need the incarnation to support your understanding of the banishment and sin, but I don’t think it works.
I came to the understand of the vital importance of the virgin birth of Jesus long before I dug deep into the Genesis account to understand that only Adam was kicked out. The understanding of he incarnation helped me to understand the fall, not the other way around. I started with the basics and worked out from there.
Greg,
You have brought up an excellent question for discussion.
I think that first of all that there is an issue of definitions that needs to be discussed. In my discussions with Calvinists, they have told me that the “sin nature” that we have inherited makes us a “sinner” and means that we are guilty of sin from the time that we are an unborn baby in the womb. However their definition is faulty and this meaning is not found in the Bible. The “sin nature” is not actual sin and so we cannot be a “sinner” just from the “sin nature”. There must be personal sin that accompanies it for us to be actual sinners. So while a young child may have the natural desire to sin (and this is the sin nature) there is no guilt until actual sin is committed. No one will ever go to hell for having a “sin nature”. They go for their own actual and practiced sin and rebellion.
One can also argue that humankind has an inherited ability to do great good and therefore fulfill the law of Christ (Romans 2:14-16).
Romans 2:14-16 doesn’t say that. It says that the Gentiles have a conscience within them that is a law to them. Paul also says that their conscience sometimes defends them and sometimes accuses them depending on whether or not they follow their conscience. But these verses doesn’t say that we have a ability to fulfill the law of Christ. After all, if we were able to fulfill the law of Christ, then we would not have needed Christ to die for us. We could have made it on our own through doing good things if that is all it takes.
So where’s the rub? Do humans have no ability to do the right thing and make the world a better place?
Sure. Some say that unregenerate man can not do a single thing that is good, but I don’t see that in the Scriptures. Jesus said that those who are evil can give what is good.
Matthew 7:11 (NASB)
11 “If you then, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father who is in heaven give what is good to those who ask Him!
But is our ability to do good enough to say that we are basically good? It is interesting to see the the humanistic view is that we are basically good.
Carl Rogers says: I do not find that…evil is inherent in human nature. Carl Rogers was an influential American psychologist and among the founders of the humanistic approach to psychology.
But the Biblical world view is at odds with this view as we are told that we have desires inside that are part of our fleshly nature and these desires are not good.
Galatians 5:16–18 (TNIV)
16 So I say, walk by the Spirit, and you will not gratify the desires of the sinful nature. 17 For the sinful nature desires what is contrary to the Spirit, and the Spirit what is contrary to the sinful nature. They are in conflict with each other, so that you are not to do whatever you want. 18 But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law.
There is a battle going on between the Spirit and the “natural” desires of our carnal “fleshly” nature. We have been tainted by the fall, not by someone else’s sin coming on us, but by a nature that we are at war with. For if we give in to the sinful nature within us, Paul says that we will die.
Romans 8:13 (LEB)
13 For if you live according to the flesh, you are going to die, but if by the Spirit you put to death the deeds of the body, you will live.
Paul talks about this inner war with his sin nature that he needs to fight and win through Christ.
Romans 7:15–23 (LEB)
15 For what I am doing I do not understand, because what I want to do, this I do not practice, but what I hate, this I do. 16 But if what I do not want to do, this I do, I agree with the law that it is good. 17 But now I am no longer the one doing it, but sin that lives in me. 18 For I know that good does not live in me, that is, in my flesh. For the willing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not. 19 For the good that I want to do, I do not do, but the evil that I do not want to do, this I do. 20 But if what I do not want to do, this I am doing, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin that lives in me.
21 Consequently, I find the principle with me, the one who wants to do good, that evil is present with me. 22 For I joyfully agree with the law of God in my inner person, 23 but I observe another law in my members, at war with the law of my mind and making me captive to the law of sin that exists in my members.
Since the bible says that even those who are evil can do good, why is it that Paul says that there is no good in him? The answer is that although we can all do good, we are not good. Our deeds can include good, but our nature is not good. There is evil in the human nature that comes from the fall.
The truth claim in the Bible is that man is fallen and his heart is desperately wicked. The world’s philosophy is that man is basically good and that he should get in touch with his own inner desires so that he can have self actualization and save himself through self-oriented pursuits.
It is a cosmic battle that rages over two dimetrically opposed truth claims. Man is not intrinsically good but he has evil living within him and so mankind needs divine grace, regeneration and redemption. If we were created as good and perfect human beings without a “natural desire” to sin, then it would be possible for one of Adam’s offspring to live without sin. But the truth is that all have sinned and our natural desires are to continue to sin. Where does the natural desire to sin come from? Scripture says that one man brought sin into the world. Where did this sin go when it came into the world?
If there is no sin nature (or natural desire for sin) then the sin that Adam brought into the world didn’t go anywhere. It just died with him. But the Scriptures talk about a “spread” of sin that has spread to all. This natural desire for sin lives in each one of us and it comes from the rebellion of the one man.
I would like to challenge anyone who thinks that we as humans do not have the natural inclination to sin within us that has been inherited from Adam, to bring as much Scriptural proof for their position. Let’s not just argue from our reasoning, but let’s discuss the texts.
Thanks, Greg, for bringing a text onto the table. I don’t think that it proves your point, but it was nice to see Scripture here instead of just an argument.
66 Mark,
I am just going to bed so I am going to pick just one of your comments for tonight and catch the rest as I can hopefully tomorrow.
My point though was simply that exegetically, reading the verse in it’s original language, context etc it is not about one ‘crushing’ the other. The actual language used is each bruising each other. This is simply pure exegetical fact.
I see now what you are getting at. Yes, the two words are the same but you are incorrect when you say that the actual language has nothing to do with crushing. I don’t know where you are getting this faulty information from but here are three lexicons followed by the Lexham Hebrew-English Lexicon and many translations.
—(1) pr. (as was first seen by Umbreit on Job 9:17), i.q. TO GAPE UPON [see note], hence to lie in wait for any thing, Gen. 3:15,“he (the seed of the woman, man) shall lie in wait for thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for his heel,” he shall endeavour to crush thy head, and thou shalt endeavour to crush his heel.
Gesenius, W., & Tregelles, S. P. (2003). Gesenius’ Hebrew and Chaldee lexicon to the Old Testament Scriptures (811).8789 1. LN 19.43–19.54 (qal) crush, i.e., a downward pressing motion of an object (Ge 3:15a+), see also 8790;…2. LN 19.1–19.13 (qal) batter, formally, crush, i.e., a repeated striking motion which injures (Job 9:17+)
Swanson, J. (1997). Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains : Hebrew (Old Testament)qal: impf. sf. : crush Gn 3:15.
Holladay, W. L., Köhler, L., & Köhler, L. (1971). A concise Hebrew and Aramaic lexicon of the Old Testament. (364).

I do agree that the same word should be used for both occurrences. After all satan did “crush” Jesus heel. When the nail was driven through the heel of Jesus the bone was crushed by the nail. So the term “crush” fits the prophesy far better than bruise.
The same Hebrew word is used in Job 9:17 and it is translated “crush” in the NIV, NKJV, NCV, RSV, GW, and Darby. And ASV translates as “breaketh” which is what crushing does. I could go on to look for more translations but I got tired.
Here is the Lexham Hebrew English where you can see the “crush”

Job 9:17 (NIV)
17 He would crush me with a storm
and multiply my wounds for no reason.Job 9:17 (NKJV)
17 For He crushes me with a tempest,
And multiplies my wounds without cause.Job 9:17 (NCV)
17 He would crush me with a storm
and multiply my wounds for no reason.Job 9:17 (RSV)
17 For he crushes me with a tempest,
and multiplies my wounds without cause;Genesis 3:15 (DARBY)
15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; he shall crush thy head, and thou shalt crush his heel.
and
Job 9:17 (DARBY)
17 He, who crusheth me with a tempest, and multiplieth my wounds without cause.Job 9:17 (ASV)
17For he breaketh me with a tempest, And multiplieth my wounds without cause.
Mark,
You said:
You can’t say that the woman’s seed (in the context) is victorious over the serpents-so whether you translate it crush, strike, bruise etc you must do the same for both.
Yes, I agree that this is the really neat thing that shows how God planned satan’s destruction from the beginning.
While God cursed the serpent, He also stated how the serpent through his seed will fight back at the seed of the woman and the very act of his fighting back will cause his destruction. The Hebrew term for “crush” is a prophesy that the serpent will crush the Messiah’s heel on the cross. Look here for new crucifixion evidence that shows that the heel was pierced with the nails:


Crucifixion evidence was found in June of 1968 at Giv’at ha-Mivtar. The discovery within a cemetery which dates to the first century time period shows evidence of a man who was crucified with nails through his feet and wrists. His legs were broken. The description is very similar to that found in the NT Gospels concerning the crucifixion of Christ. Josephus described crucifixion in the time of the Fall of Jerusalem as so great that “space could not be found for the crosses nor crosses for the bodies.” (JW 5.11.1) demonstrating that crucifixion was common during the time period of Jesus.
Joseph Fitzmyer reviewed the evidence from Giv’at ha-Mivtar in his 1978 CBQ article entitled “Crucifixion in Ancient Palestine, Qumran Literature, and the New Testament.” He quotes the findings of V. Tzaferis (Israeli Department of Antiquities and Museums) who says: “This is undoubtedly a case of crucifixion.” The report continues describing what the picture above demonstrates a “large iron nail” fixed through heel bones.
The man who was crucified was 24-28 years old and 5ft 5 inches tall. The nail had been driven into acacia wood and then bent down; so that it would not be worked out. The nail was so firmly into the wood that the feet were cut off in order to remove the body from the cross (“it was impossible to withdraw the nail and there was a post mortem amputation of the feet . .. “).
Fitzmyer concludes that “the evidence for the practice is no longer solely literary in extrabiblical writings, but now archaeological as well.” Furthermore the evidence related to the Gospel of John which indicates they did not break the legs of Jesus shows a corresponding link between the typical practice (as John indicates and the evidence now demonstrates did occur) and what occurred to Jesus in the Gospels. Furthermore the relationship between actual piercing and also the cross/tree detail are both corroborated by the evidence.
From http://davidritsema.wordpress.com/2008/03/18/crucifixion/
So while God cursed the serpent in the garden because of his deception, the serpent tried to destroy God’s Messiah by cursing Him by the cross.
Galatians 3:13 (NASB)
13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us—for it is written, “CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO HANGS ON A TREE”—
But God turned around and use the instrument that was meant to curse and kill Christ, into an instrument that would bring Christ the victory.
Colossians 2:14–15 (NASB)
14 having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.
15 When He had disarmed the rulers and authorities, He made a public display of them, having triumphed over them through Him.
The very cross that was used as a weapon against Jesus by crushing his heel through crucifixon became the weapon that destroyed satan’s power. The curse was complete against the serpent when Jesus triumphed over the serpent with the cross. God used the very weapon (the cross) that the serpent tried to destroy Jesus with and it was prophesied back in Genesis that the thing that would crush the Messiah heal would crush the head of the serpent.
Psalm 68:21 (NASB)
21 Surely God will shatter the head of His enemies,
The hairy crown of him who goes on in his guilty deeds.
And because Jesus crushed the head of the serpent at the cross, we too as His body will has satan crushed under our feet.
Romans 16:20 (NASB)
20 The God of peace will soon crush Satan under your feet.
The grace of our Lord Jesus be with you.
The beauty of the cross and God’s prediction in Genesis 3:15 is that what the enemy meant for evil, God meant for good. The cross was meant by the enemy to curse and to destroy. But the cross actually destroyed the destroyer.
While the human author of Genesis likely never understood the words that he was penning concerning God’s words to the serpent, looking back on the prophesy we can see God’s plan made to destroy the serpent right from the beginning. The Word Biblical Commentary shows that even in the Septuagint and other Jewish writings back to the third century BC, the victory of the Messiah over satan was viewed in Genesis 3:15.
Certainly the oldest Jewish interpretation found in the third century B.C. Septuagint, the Palestinian targums (Ps.-J., Neof., Frg.), and possibly the Onqelos targum takes the serpent as symbolic of Satan and look for a victory over him in the days of King Messiah. The NT also alludes to this passage, understanding it in a broadly messianic sense (Rom. 16:20; Heb. 2:14; Rev. 12), and it may be that the term “Son of Man” as a title for Jesus and the term “woman” for Mary (John 2:4; 19:26) also reflect this passage (Gallus; cf. Michl). Certainly, later Christian commentators, beginning with Justin (ca. A.D. 160) and Irenaeus (ca. 180), have often regarded 3:15 as the Protoevangelium, the first messianic prophecy in the OT. While a messianic interpretation may be justified in the light of subsequent revelation, a sensus plenior, it would perhaps be wrong to suggest that this was the narrator’s own understanding. Probably he just looked for mankind eventually to defeat the serpent’s seed, the powers of evil.
Wenham, G. J. (2002). Vol. 1: Word Biblical Commentary : Genesis 1-15. Word Biblical Commentary (80–81).
I have no doubt that when Jesus rose from the dead and He met with some of the disciples on the road, that He took Genesis 3:15 and explained its meaning to them.
Luke 24:25–27 (NASB95)
25 And He said to them, “O foolish men and slow of heart to believe in all that the prophets have spoken!
26 “Was it not necessary for the Christ to suffer these things and to enter into His glory?”
27 Then beginning with Moses and with all the prophets, He explained to them the things concerning Himself in all the Scriptures.
Notice that Jesus started with Moses and from Moses’ writings He explained to them what had been written about Him and the suffering that He would experience. Genesis 3:15 is the very first Scripture that mentions the suffering of the Messiah with his heel crushed and it is also the very first Scripture that declares the victory on the same front as His heal was crushed. It is the cross and it is the sign of triumph over the serpent.
Mark,
Now regarding the incarnation, I will answer that later when I have more time. Hopefully I can get to it later tonight after our bible study.
”God has placed us all under sin so that we would all be in a position to have faith in Him instead of earning our way to God.””My friend, let me say it this way. If Jesus was born with the same nature as the rest of mankind, then He couldn’t be the Savior. He had a different nature (sinless) but that doesn’t mean that it wasn’t human.”“This is where Jesus was different than Adam’s end. Jesus never gave in to temptation and
His temptations were “in every way just as we are” while Adam was tempted to rebel in only one thing.””We didn’t sin “in Adam” as if we participated in his sin. We were “in Adam” when he sinned so that the consequences of his rebellion would be felt by those who had yet to be born. We experienced the results of the poison and our DNA was changed from perfect to disposed toward sin.”
“If there is no sin nature (or natural desire for sin) then the sin that Adam brought into the world didn’t go anywhere. It just died with him. But the Scriptures talk about a “spread” of sin that has spread to all. This natural desire for sin lives in each one of us and it comes from the rebellion of the one man.”<
Romans 5:12 is one of the verses most often cited in support of inherited “sin nature.” However, that’s not what the verse actually says.
“Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned”
We didn’t all sin “in” Adam. Death spread to all men because all sinned. Adam, whose name means humanity, is the archetype for mankind.
The nature of humanity was, in Adam, to die.
The nature of humanity in Christ, to live.
“The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy; I have come that they may have life, and have it to the full.”
This is such an important part of Christianity. God who loves us, made us alive in Christ, freeing us from the wrathful rule of the prince of the power of the air and bondage to our passions, and created us anew for good works. According to Eph.2:3, we “were” children of wrath – we were subject to the wrathful rule of the prince of the power of the air, but now Christ made us live.
Personally, as someone who by my early 20’s, was so bound up in the fear of my impending death and the futility of life (without God) that I saw no point in living, this was huge for me.
Jonathan Edwards himself could have preached “Sinners in the hands of an angry God” to my face and not effected me, but knowing that God set me free did.
So, I came to God because I found no point in living and then heard that He cares and went to great lengths to show it (“for God so loved the world…”) and He has a purpose for me. It wasn’t until after I was already in a relationship with God that the Holy Spirit began to show me the sin in my life. First, through grace and mercy, He loved me just as I was – lost in life and in need of Perfect Love. He loved me into a relationship. He did not condemn me into a relationship. Perfect Love that casts out fear. Sin is something that can only be truely understood from within a Christian vantage point. If you don’t know God, then it is impossible to see sin in its proper perspective.
“As for you, you were dead in your transgressions and sins, in which you used to live when you followed the ways of this world and of the ruler of the kingdom of the air, the spirit who is now at work in those who are disobedient. All of us also lived among them at one time, gratifying the cravings of our sinful nature and following its desires and thoughts. Like the rest, we were by nature objects of wrath.” Eph.2:1-3
This depicts the habitual style of life which had characterized these believers prior to their conversion. Had Paul intended to convey the notion of inherited sin nature at the time of their birth, he easily could have expressed that idea by saying,
“you became by birth children of wrath.” But he didn’t.
“But God, who is rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), and raised us up together, and made us sit together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, that in the ages to come He might show the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.” Eph. 2:4-6
Christianity tells the story of a God who is about the business of rescuing mankind and all creation. We cannot rescue ourselves. Our God is not some distant deity. He is the Lord who comes near, the One who enters His creation as a part of it, who empties Himself. And by doing so, God is the one who destroys death and heals mankind, making relationship with God possible for us all. It was always God’s purpose for mankind to be joined in full relationship with God. And that is only ever possible through the action of God. We could never have joined ourselves to God unless he first joined his nature to ours. Otherwise, you end up with a God who is either overly concerned about defending His honor or a God who cannot forgive an offense without payment – a God without mercy and grace. Now, that does not correlate very well at all with the God I find in Scripture and it oversimplifies mankind’s problem and the measures necessary to save us. God paid His own penalty – that is forgiveness.
“There is therefore now no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus, who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has made me free from the law of sin and death. For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, on account of sin: He condemned sin in the flesh, that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.”
Because I reject the “inherited sin nature” perspective does not then mean that I believe that any of us are somehow free from the myriad actions and choices of our parents and ancestors. Nobody starts life with a clean slate completely free from the influence of anyone but themselves. But the language for what we experience is not properly boiled down to “guilt or innocence.” It is the language of consequences as well.
To all,
We have a group of people meeting in our home on Tuesday nights and we have been going through The Truth Project http://www.thetruthproject.org/ Tonight’s lesson was on the nature of man and the sin nature that is a battle within us. The host compares the worldview of the world that says that there is no evil within us and that we are basically good, showing that there are two worldviews that are diametrically opposed to each other. It has been a really good series so far and lesson 3 is top notch for showing how this nature of the “old man” within us is an important doctrine to understand to properly fight the battle between the “flesh” and the “Spirit”.
Cheryl,
Have you read Calvin on the issue of original sin? Particularly Book 2 chapter 1 of his Institutes?
Mark,
I appreciate your comments regarding Gen 3:15. Let me just say one final thing in case you missed it. I do agree with you that looking bcak at this verse in our position, we can see the prophetic nature of it. I’m just trying to look at the verse exegetically, that’s all- i think this is perhaps where we differ slightly.
One cannot properly do exegesis without understanding the type of writing that you are exegeting. When we are looking to a prophesied future event, where God says what the serpent will do in the future and what the woman’s seed will do, one cannot determine the meaning without an understanding of the prophetic. You cannot just provide a meaning to the time when God said the words. God is defining the ultimate cosmic battle that ultimately draws in God Himself. If we take Genesis and Revelation we will see a prophesy and a fulfillment of the cosmic battle between good and evil. The ultimate victory of Christ using the very cross that satan used as a weapon against Him gives us the very nature of God for us to see.
God’s nature is to take evil and turn it around on its head to turn it into something that is good. And on the flip side God takes what is meant for evil and He gives back to the evil doer a measure-for-measure payment back.
Do you remember the account of Haman and Mordecai and Esther? Haman was asked by the king what he could do to bring honor to a person that deserved honor. Haman thought who could the king want to honor more than himself and he set up what he wanted as an honor. It was a public honor with royal robes and a public declaration of the king’s favor and honor. But then he had to do this for Mordecai whom he despised. This event caused him to hate Mordecai so much that he devised a plan to kill all of the Jews. He planned to take away Mordecai’s public honor by a public hanging and Haman built a huge gallows 75 feet high to publicly humiliate and kill Mordecai. But if you remember the story, God turned the evil around in his own face and Haman and his sons were the ones hung on those 75 feet high gallows.
This is God’s way. He takes the evil that is planned and He turns the evil around into the bosom of the evil doer. How did God turn the evil of satan around?
Is it not true that He brought satan’s destruction through the seed of the one whom satan deceived? Is it also not true that satan devised a plan to kill Jesus with a curse of death by killing him on the cross? Remember that any who is hung on a cross is cursed. And is it not also true that God took this plan and turned it on its head and used the cross to defeat satan?
Colossians 2:15 (NET)
2:15 Disarming the rulers and authorities, he has made a public disgrace of them, triumphing over them by the cross.
There are multiple prophecies of Jesus birth, life, ministry, death and resurrection in the OT scriptures. Where is the prophesy in the OT of God’s turning around the evil plan of satan to kill Jesus on the cross and to use this plan to make a public spectacle of the enemy triumphing over him in it (the cross)? All of this was prophesied the very day that satan deceived the woman. And the type of death was prophesied (crushing of the heel on the cross) before crucifixion was even invented. God gets the glory for all of this.
However, taking your exegesis, all God is saying is that the serpent is going to be hated by people and he will try to bite men on the heel and they will try to kill him because they don’t like each other. And so the curse on the serpent becomes the curse on man with each after the other bruising one another. Does this interpretation fit with God’s way of turning the evil around and bringing the evil planned back on the head of the evil doer? Does this interpretation show that God is able to bring good out of evil? Or does this interpretation fail in bringing God the full glory that His Son brings Him through the destruction of the serpent?
Comparing the two interpretations shows a serious lack of meaning to your view and the fact that the cosmic battle of good and evil and between the serpent and the Messiah was understood long before Christ was born to crush the head of the serpent, showing to me a consistent pattern of God getting the glory. If you choose to reject that after all I have shown and stick to an interpretation of curses between snakes and men giving no glory to God, then I guess you have the right to your interpretation. But I don’t buy it at all.
However i’m not sure i’m ready to accept that the nail through the heel is fulfillment of Gen 3:15. That’s a bit too allegorical for me. You may be right, but i’d hold to that one loosely.
What I find so awesome is that the more evidence archeology finds, the more of a God-pattern we see. When I first saw the pictures of the heel being crushed by the nail several years ago I was jumping inside by the incredible marvel of God’s Word. It wasn’t a “bruising” of Christ’s heel at all and this never seemed to fit. When did this allegorical “bruising” happen to Christ? But when I could see that it was a literal “crushing” of the heel on the cross, it all came together for me. The more I read the Scriptures the more they come to life for me and the more I came to trust the God who can predict the serpent’s plan before it ever entered the serpent’s head. The serpent never got it or he would never have crushed the Messiah’s heel on the cross. If he had really known the character of God that evil is put back on the head of the evil doer, he would have understood that getting Christ on the cross was his death knell. Genesis 3:15 was fulfilled on the day that they nailed Christ’s heel onto the cross and satan never even knew it was coming.
Mark,
You said:
Have you read Calvin on the issue of original sin? Particularly Book 2 chapter 1 of his Institutes?
No, I haven’t. I have kept my research mainly to the Bible and lexicon studies along with historical sources. Actually I have had quite a few Calvinists quote Calvin to me with obvious contradiction to the Scriptures, that I haven’t even had a desire to read his material. However I do have the Calvin 108 volume collection (http://www.logos.com/products/details/5170) in my trusty collection ready for any study that I need to do for my DVD on the Sovereignty of God. However getting into that has to wait until I finish my book this summer.
Re Cheryl #63 & #76
1) When I argued that humankind also has the ability to fulfill the law of Christ, I was thinking in terms of Galatians 6:2.
Restoring, helping, and doing good to one another does indeed fulfill the law of Christ, whether it is done by Gentiles outside the house of Israel, or done by the Jews within.
If man’s default condition can only be evil by nature, how can he by nature (Romans 2:14) do the things contained in the law as Paul claims?
I am simply affirming that humans are born with a spark of the divine (made in God’s image) and the free will to exercise that spark.
caveat: This in no way says, nor does it imply that I can effect my own resurrection (apart from Christ) into a brand-new corporeal (flesh) body (Job 19:25-27) that does not wear out and die (Revelation 21:1-6). Only Jesus can do that for me.
2) I do NOT agree for a moment with the world view of modern humanism (Rogers et. al.).
But I do agree with the classical humanism of Desiderius Erasmus (1466-1536) as touching his call for moderation and tolerance in stark contrast to the dogmatism of the reformers (Luther & Calvin).
caveat: The humanism of Erasmus is NOT the same as the secular humanism of today.
3) I do not deny that we all wage an inner war between choosing to do good things or opting to continue in the pursuit of wickedness.
And yes the heart is deceitful and wicked (Jeremiah 17:9); no contest, but the Bible also speaks of a merry heart and a clean heart.
In context, Jeremiah 17 is about the sin, idolotry, and ill-gotten wealth of Judah, not the default condition of the human heart, because in verse 10, God says that he searches the heart to see what its real motive is and what the payout will be.
4) I believe that we have inherited physical death from Adam in conjunction with the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:17)
Genesis 4:7 also tells me that I have been given the ability to do the right thing and slam the door in sin’s face.
Unless this set-up has somehow been changed or abrogated in the remainder of scripture, I am having a difficult time finding an inherited trait that forces me to open the door, make nice with sin, and let it have its way with me.
Greg,
Thanks for taking the time to flesh out your view.
1) When I argued that humankind also has the ability to fulfill the law of Christ, I was thinking in terms of Galatians 6:2.
Restoring, helping, and doing good to one another does indeed fulfill the law of Christ, whether it is done by Gentiles outside the house of Israel, or done by the Jews within.
If man’s default condition can only be evil by nature, how can he by nature (Romans 2:14) do the things contained in the law as Paul claims?
I don’t believe that man’s default condition is only “evil by nature”. The Bible says in several places that we can do good. The gentiles can do good and even the Pharisees who were against Jesus could do good to their own children. The issue for Paul was not whether we can do good things but if the good that we can do is the basis of a “work” that will save us. None of us is sinless so the good that we do doesn’t create a “good” person who has no need for the Savior. So we both agree mankind is capable of doing good things.
I am simply affirming that humans are born with a spark of the divine (made in God’s image) and the free will to exercise that spark.
caveat: This in no way says, nor does it imply that I can effect my own resurrection (apart from Christ) into a brand-new corporeal (flesh) body (Job 19:25-27) that does not wear out and die (Revelation 21:1-6). Only Jesus can do that for me.
I can also agree that we are capable of doing good by our own free will, however we do not have the ability to live a sinless life without the Holy Spirit’s power for our will has been tainted by the fall. Our salvation also is not just a new body and the resurrection but a restored relationship with God that has been paid for by the Lord Jesus. Only Jesus can do that for us too, right?
Romans 7:18 (NASB)
18 For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh; for the willing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not.But I do agree with the classical humanism of Desiderius Erasmus (1466-1536) as touching his call for moderation and tolerance in stark contrast to the dogmatism of the reformers (Luther & Calvin).
caveat: The humanism of Erasmus is NOT the same as the secular humanism of today.
I believe that the truth is in the middle so that humanity’s free will is not completely free nor is it completely in bondage. If human will was completely free then we wouldn’t struggle with sin as Paul shared his struggle in the book of Romans. And if human will was completely in bondage then it would make no sense for Jesus to say that even the evil Pharisees could do good things.
Also no matter how many good things we can do should we desire to do them, those good works can never wash away our sin for just one sin against God’s law makes us a law breaker.
James 2:10 (NASB)
10 For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all.
You also said:
3) I do not deny that we all wage an inner war between choosing to do good things or opting to continue in the pursuit of wickedness.
And yes the heart is deceitful and wicked (Jeremiah 17:9); no contest, but the Bible also speaks of a merry heart and a clean heart.
But would you also agree with me that God is the one who must clean our hearts since we are incapable of making ourselves pure?
Proverbs 20:9 (NASB)
9 Who can say, “I have cleansed my heart,
I am pure from my sin”?
What I see in the Scriptures is that the one who trusts in God is considered righteous. And that one who is considered righteous by God is able to consistently live by faith in his/her actions.
4) I believe that we have inherited physical death from Adam in conjunction with the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:17)
Genesis 4:7 also tells me that I have been given the ability to do the right thing and slam the door in sin’s face.
Unless this set-up has somehow been changed or abrogated in the remainder of scripture, I am having a difficult time finding an inherited trait that forces me to open the door, make nice with sin, and let it have its way with me.
The inherited trait does not force us into letting sin have its way with us. Rather the trait causes us to desire sin naturally while God has also created us in His image allowing us the ability to refuse sin should we so desire. So just as Paul says that the gentiles obeyed the law even though they had not been given the law (just as we all have a God-given conscience) none of the gentiles kept God’s law perfectly.
The issue with Cain is two-fold. First of all he did not give his sacrifice to God by faith thus only Abel’s offering is said to have been by faith:
Hebrews 11:4 (NET)
11:4 By faith Abel offered God a greater sacrifice than Cain, and through his faith he was commended as righteous, because God commended him for his offerings. And through his faith he still speaks, though he is dead.
After Cain did not come to God by faith, he had his sacrifice rejected by God. It is interesting that Cain is told that he must master sin after he had already sinned by refusing to come to God in faith and sinned by being angry without cause.
The way I see this is that the sin nature made it easy for Cain to sin by being angry without cause, but just because it was natural for him to feel hatred doesn’t mean that this sin had to have complete control of him. While Cain had the mandate to master the hatred within him so that it would not become murder, the fact that he had an internal hatred to begin with shows the sin nature.
So the difference is that the sin nature causes us to have the internal inclination towards sin yet we are still able to make choices regarding what we will do with our sinful feelings. If we give in to the feelings that are already within, sin becomes our master and it becomes harder to fight just as practiced sin makes us a slave to sin.
Greg, I am wondering if you can see the difference between what is within naturally and our actual acting out of the sinful thoughts? It seems to me that the cause of confusion is mixing the two up. Your answer didn’t deal with inner sin nor did you deal with Cain’s already sinful anger that had already happened. If you are willing to distinguish between the two (one sin that had not yet happened at the time God talked to Cain and one sin that had already been committed within him) that would be great.
Mark,
I can’t see how your view is any different to Greg’s really. You say we are born with a sinful nature, yet you say that we have the ability to not sin.
Since Greg doesn’t believe that we have an “old man” nature and I believe that we do, how is it that our view is not different? Also I didn’t say that we have the ability not to sin at all so that we are sinless. I did say that we have the ability to make choices when we are tempted, whether we will sin or not. For example many married men have had temptations to commit adultery but not all have committed adultery. The fact that many have not sinned in this way even if they are unbelievers shows that they had a choice to stay away from this sin.
What makes us able to make those choices? Free-will? IF you say free will then your view is identitical to Greg’s since he also believes that we have the ability to do good or keep God’s requirements by our own free-will.
God has given us the power to make choices. Otherwise it would be deceitful for God to tell us to “choose you this day…” if we had not power of choice. But at the same time we do not have the ability to keep the requirements of the law otherwise we wouldn’t need a Savior.
Problem is this contradicts with scripture. Eph 2 says we are dead in sin.
Eph 2:”dead people” can respond to God. They can also sin.
Romans 3 outlines the nature of sin. No-one seeks God, nor does any do good.
Romans 3:11 is a quote from Psalms 14:1-3 and the context about those who do not seek God, is those who say there is no God.
Psalm 14:1–3 (NASB)
1 The fool has said in his heart, “There is no God.”
They are corrupt, they have committed abominable deeds;
There is no one who does good.
2 The LORD has looked down from heaven upon the sons of men
To see if there are any who understand,
Who seek after God.
3 They have all turned aside, together they have become corrupt;
There is no one who does good, not even one.
Yet throughout the Scripture we find those who seek and fear God. Deut. 4:29 is a prophetic word about those who will seek God.
Deuteronomy 4:29 (NASB)
29 “But from there you will seek the LORD your God, and you will find Him if you search for Him with all your heart and all your soul.2 Chronicles 15:4 (NET)
15:4 Because of their distress, they turned back to the LORD God of Israel. They sought him and he responded to them.
You said:
John 3 says that we need to be re-born before we can come to God.
John 3 doesn’t say this at all. It says that unless we are born again we cannot see the kingdom of God. It doesn’t say that we can’t come to God.
Many old testament prophecies of the new covenant talk of a ‘new heart’ that is needed becasue our heart is corrupt.
We are told to circumcise our hearts. We do this through repentance as we come to God and as we believe Him, He gives us a new heart.
Point is- until the Spirit gives us a new heart and opens our eyes we will never be able to act in faith in Christ.
Faith in God and receiving Jesus comes before we become children of God.
John 1:12 (NASB95)
12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name,
The Bible never says that we are again first and then we are able to have faith.
And Romans 14 says everything not done in faith is sin. So even those ‘good’ works are sin since they are not done in faith.
Romans 14 is talking about believers not unbelievers. The context is eating something that you believe to be sinful. It is going against our conscience. The chapter has nothing to do with unregenerate men doing good works.
Romans 14:22–23 (NASB)
22 The faith which you have, have as your own conviction before God. Happy is he who does not condemn himself in what he approves.
23 But he who doubts is condemned if he eats, because his eating is not from faith; and whatever is not from faith is sin.
You said:
Our free-will is corrupt since the fall. We will always choose sin over God, unless the Spirit intervenes in our lives.
As I said before, our free-will is not completely free. However God has chosen to give us the freedom to seek God as He requires this from all of us.
If faith is not itself a gift, can you explain therefore how then we are not adding to our salvation?
Salvation is the gift of God and the vehicle is by grace through faith. The faith that is listed as God’s gift is not given to all of the saved just as not all have the same gifts.
EVen if God does 99% and we do the last 1% it is still works based salvation.
If we “work” even 1% for our salvation then it is a works based salvation. However faith is not a work.
Galatians 2:16 (NASB)
16 nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified.Romans 4:2–3 (NASB)
2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God.
3 For what does the Scripture say? “ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS CREDITED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.”THis is what Augustine and the reformers have been fighting against throughout all of Church history, yet people still wish to promote this false teaching.
Augustine the Father of Catholicism and any brother who separates from their brothers in Christ by calling their faith a work is harming the body of Christ for we are not to separate from our brothers in the faith or to call their faith a heresy merely because they are not Calvinists.
Cheryl,
I understand that you believe in a sin nature from Adam and Greg does not, but the logical conclusion of what you are saying leads to the same path. You say we have the ability as unregenerate people to come to God. You say that we have the ability as unregenerate people to not sin. If this is true, then theoretically we could be sinless. If I am able to avoid sinful behaviour because of my free-will, this should apply to all sin, therefore theoretically I could avoid sin even though I have a sin nature. This then leads to the problem you pointed out with Greg that we then no longer need a saviour. I can’t see how you can worm your way out of that one. Either we will by nature always sin or we won’t, and we can keep God’s commandments. The view you are presenting doesn’t make sense.
You used the example of an adulterer. Problem is Jesus up’d the anti. Anyone who looks lustfully is committing adultery. Are you willing to say that we can fulfil this requirement by ourselves, without the intervening of the Holy Spirit.
I agree that God gave us the abililty to make choices. God calls on us to follow him. The problem is that after the fall our nature was corrupted by sin. We by nature reject God by sinning from the moment we are born. I’m sure you can see Cheryl after having children, that we as parents have to teach our children how to be good. They will by nature be evil. You don’t teach a toddler how to lie, he/she will do it automatically. Thus our ‘free-will’ is totally corrupted. We will always choose sin over God In our natures. This is why we need a saviour, we can’t do it by ourselves.
I would like to know how you think that ‘dead people’ can respond to God. According to the passage we were all dead people. We were all people under wrath- every single person. BUT, verse 4 says it was GOD who made us alive, not us. What you have said is completely contradictory to Eph 2, and it strips the glory from God. Only God can make us alive, we have no ability by ourselves.
It is also interesting that you think the ‘faith’ in Eph 2 is not a gift for every believer. Then I guess you would also like to be consistent and say that the salvation that is by grace through faith (which is what the verse is about) is not for every Christian. You can’t have it both ways Cheryl. I’m afraid you have dug yourself into a hole with this one.
Romans 3 is a quote from the psalms that is true. But to come to the conclusion that you have is misguided. We should ask the question- how is Paul using it here? What is the context? The verses before the quote give the answer.
Rom 3:9 What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin,…
It doesn’t seem like Paul is talking only about those who do not seek God does it Cheryl? No, Paul clearly states that all are like this, Jew and Gentile, even himself. I’m afraid Paul’s intention here, (noting that the first 3 chapters of Romans are dealing with everyone, Jew and Gentile) is that he is using this quote to support his view that every single person is like this. No one seeks God by themselves as dead in sin. I can’t understand why you would want to water our sinful nature down when the bible is so graphic about it. You can’t just dismiss the context of Romans 3 and Paul’s intention of using this quote to support his argument, as irrelevant and only rely on the Old Testament context. Paul is clearly using it here with another purpose.
Your other old testament quotes do nothing to support your view of unregenerate man seeking God. The first one is a dubious translation, the NIV makes is a hypothetical by using ‘if’, that is “But if from there you seek the Lord”,
In the 2 Chronicles verse, you forgot to mention the verse before which show God intervening through the Prophet Azariah. So the same principle applies, God has to work first before we can respond.
Another point to note is that the Bible never talks about our own free-will, as if we can accept God by ourselves especially in the verses you quoted. These passages are silent on why the people turned to God, but we have other clear passage which show us why people do turn, namely, because God intervenes. Does Jesus not say that no-one can come to the Father unless the Father draws him? We are better understanding the silent passages from the clear passages, not assuming free-will into them.
John 3- Cheryl, what is the kingdom of God, if not a relationship with him? What does Jesus mean by being born again? I would like to know your opinion? When are we born of the Spirit (verse 5)? You must believe that the Spirit of God does not enter our life until we respond in faith right?
So if we can circumcise our own heart by our own repentance, why did we need the new covenant. Didn’t at least some of the Jews repent Cheryl? I think you are greatly misinformed. The whole purpose of the new covenant was that God would give us a new heart (Jer 31:31). The Jews broke God’s covenant because they had a heart of stone. In the New Covenant God promises to give us a new heart by his spirit internally. He promises to right his laws on our hearts through the Spirit. This is of such great importance. Your view makes the new covenant un-necessary. In our own strength we are nothing and can do nothing to save ourselves. Again I must protest that you are stealing the glory from God in HIS work. It is not our own doing.
By the way Cheryl, repentance is also a gift of God not our own strength
2Ti 2:25 correcting his opponents with gentleness. God may perhaps grant them repentance leading to a knowledge of the truth,
Who grants repentance here Cheryl, clearly God. Repentance and faith are gifts of God to his sheep, so that no-one can boast.
You said “Faith in God and receiving Jesus comes before we become children of God.”
Really Cheryl, I don’t think Romans 8 says this
Rom 8:29 For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers.
Rom 8:30 And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.
We were predestined to be conformed to Jesus image before we are justified according to these verses. And since faith is the requirement for justification we must conclude that no-where does faith precede God’s ordained plan. We were God’s children CHOSEN before the world was created according to Eph 1:4. If only you realised Cheryl, that you were God’s chosen child before you even knew about Him.
It is true that John 1 says we become God’s child after we trust in Jesus. I believe that, but I also believe that bible clearly teaches that this was God’s plan for my life before the world was even created.
You said “The Bible never says that we are again first and then we are able to have faith.”
I’m interested to know how you pray for your unsaved friends Cheryl. Do you pray for God to open their eyes or to soften their hearts? Or do you not even ask God to help and just believe that their own free-will is good enough? I sure hope you do the former and not the latter! You see everyone believes in the sovereignty of God when they pray and ask God to intervene, even if you deny it when you speak to me. Being ‘born-again’ is God opening their eyes to the message of the cross. We in sin are dead people according to Eph 2 therefore we need to be re-born and made alive, and like i said ealier, EPh 2 tells us that it is God who makes us alive not oursleves. Being born again definitely comes before faith. It is the work of the spirit in unregenerate man so that he can accept the message of salvation.
Roman 14- I agree with the context, but the verse still says what it says. Everything not done in faith is sin, whether you’re a believer or unbeliever. The reason being that everything is to be done for the glory of God. IF it is not done in faith in God how can it give glory to God, it simply can’t. I can’t see why you would deny this biblical verse. Do you believe that you can do things that are not in faith in Christ and it not be sin?
You said “As I said before, our free-will is not completely free. However God has chosen to give us the freedom to seek God as He requires this from all of us.”
Where does it say this in the bible? God demands that we follow him and no other, but I haven’t seen anywhere where the bible says we have the ‘freedom to seek God’. Aren’t we as fallen people living in the darkness, suppressing the truth, until God opens our eyes? Please show me verses talking about our freedom to seek God and our free-will in doing this?
“If we “work” even 1% for our salvation then it is a works based salvation. However faith is not a work.”
I agree that faith is not a work, it is because it is a gift of God so that none can boast. If faith is something we do without God, then it is a work of ours because it doesn’t stem from God, therefore you have works based salvation. This is the problem with your view. You can’t skirt around the issue. You need to do better at convincing me that you are not promoting a works based salvation. Like I said Pelagianism (Augustine) and semi-pelagianism (reformers) were both condemned. How is your view not semi-pelagianism Cheryl? Unless we accept that every single piece of our salvation is from God, it will always be works based. That is simple truth.
I do pray that God will reveal that to you, in the same way he did to me a few years ago. It totally changed my understanding of the grace of God. He is so merciful.
Mark,
You said:
I understand that you believe in a sin nature from Adam and Greg does not, but the logical conclusion of what you are saying leads to the same path. You say we have the ability as unregenerate people to come to God.
Hold on there, back up that boat! I didn’t say that unregenerate people have the ability to come to God. I said that unregenerate people can seek God. These are two completely different things.
God cannot be found unless He allows Himself to be found. God has given the promise that He will be found under several circumstances. One circumstance is that the person seeks for God with their whole heart.
Deuteronomy 4:29 (NASB)
29 “…you will seek the LORD your God, and you will find Him if you search for Him with all your heart and all your soul.
Seeking God and “coming to God” are not the same thing.
You have an interesting misunderstanding of my position as you said:
You say that we have the ability as unregenerate people to not sin. If this is true, then theoretically we could be sinless.
I didn’t say that unregenerate people have the “ability” to not sin. It is impossible for a person with a sin nature to never commit one sin. That is one of the reasons why Jesus had to be born without a sin nature.
What I did say was that unregenerate people have the ability to choose to not follow the temptation to sin. While the “old man” nature within us propels us into various levels of sinful behavior, this nature cannot force us to sin. We are left with the choice, but our “free will” is not completely free since the “old man” naturally tends toward rebellion. A person can fight the “old man” but never master this “old man nature” without the help of the Holy Spirit and even then we are fighting a battle that will never be won perfectly until the “old man” within this mortal body is put to death and we take on our new bodies with our perfect new nature made in the image of Christ.
If I am able to avoid sinful behaviour because of my free-will, this should apply to all sin, therefore theoretically I could avoid sin even though I have a sin nature.
Nope. It is not even possible. The “old man nature” is not an after thought of God’s but part of His Sovereign plan to make us all alike in need of Him.
Romans 11:32 (NASB)
32 For God has shut up all in disobedience so that He may show mercy to all.
Because all have one nature (the old man nature given to us through Adam) all are shut up in disobedience through our human nature. God did this by making sure that there was not even one single offspring of Adam that was conceived before the fall. All of us are shut up together in this nature for the purpose of making us all equally in need of a Savior and all equally in need of God’s mercy.
This then leads to the problem you pointed out with Greg that we then no longer need a saviour. I can’t see how you can worm your way out of that one.
I don’t need to worm my way out of anything since I affirm the Scriptures. Our “old man” nature has made sure that all of us are in the same hot water. All of us need a Savior and my view can never be twisted to say that we can be sinless and work our way to Heaven.
Either we will by nature always sin or we won’t, and we can keep God’s commandments. The view you are presenting doesn’t make sense.
Actually it is your view that doesn’t make sense. While I am saying that it is impossible for a person with a sin nature (old man nature) to stay sinless, it seems to me that you are saying that it is impossible for a person with a sin nature to fight a temptation. If that were true then there would be no faithful marriages and no truth could possibly be told by any unregenerate person. But this is obviously not true. is it?
You used the example of an adulterer. Problem is Jesus up’d the anti. Anyone who looks lustfully is committing adultery. Are you willing to say that we can fulfil this requirement by ourselves, without the intervening of the Holy Spirit.
What I am saying is that no unregenerate person is forced to commit adultery because of his/her sin nature. And some have even dealt successfully with lust. After all it helps to be an unregenerate person who is a eunuch 😉 However all of us are bound up in this common nature that brings rebellion out in us in one area or another (or in all areas!) We all need a Savior.
I agree that God gave us the abililty to make choices. God calls on us to follow him. The problem is that after the fall our nature was corrupted by sin. We by nature reject God by sinning from the moment we are born.
Nah. That is overstating your case. You may have sinned the first day you are born, but most babies are unable to break the 10 commandments until a little later.
I’m sure you can see Cheryl after having children, that we as parents have to teach our children how to be good. They will by nature be evil.
Nah again. Jesus said that even those who are by nature evil people, can also by nature do good things. Young children can just as easily reach out to comfort another child as they can smack the nonsense out of an irritating sibling. No one has to teach them how to comfort a hurting child or how to smack down a nuisance. Even babies can do good out of their human nature as they still have enough of the God-image within them to do good things. That image has not been destroyed.
You don’t teach a toddler how to lie, he/she will do it automatically.
Most toddlers will naturally lie, but some will not sin as easily in this area. Their weakness may be in another area even though they will all be bound under sin.
Thus our ‘free-will’ is totally corrupted.
If this was true, then Jesus did not tell us the truth when he said that evil people can do good. And they can do this good freely of their own free-will without coercion
We will always choose sin over God In our natures. This is why we need a saviour, we can’t do it by ourselves.
We don’t need a Savior “because we always choose sin over God”. We need a Savior because we are all sinners and without the price that Jesus paid on our behalf, we would be lost in our sin and alienated from God.
I am having trouble with my internet tonight so I am going to see if these comments go through and I will get to the rest as the connection allows me to.
By the way can you differentiate between ‘seeking God’ and ‘coming to God since you seem to make that an important distinction.
Mark,
You said:
I would like to know how you think that ‘dead people’ can respond to God.
“Dead” is a metaphor. We know that “dead” people can bury the dead. They can eat, drink, be merry and they can respond to God. Cornelius was not born again when he responded to God’s call to hear Peter. He was also not born again when he was said to “fear God” and as a “devout” man he “prayed to God continually”.
Acts 10:1–2 (NASB)
1 Now there was a man at Caesarea named Cornelius, a centurion of what was called the Italian cohort,
2 a devout man and one who feared God with all his household, and gave many alms to the Jewish people and prayed to God continually.We were all people under wrath- every single person. BUT, verse 4 says it was GOD who made us alive, not us.
Of course. Who is teaching that we ourselves can accomplish the miracle of re-birth? Who is teaching that we make ourselves alive? It isn’t me.
What you have said is completely contradictory to Eph 2, and it strips the glory from God. Only God can make us alive, we have no ability by ourselves.
This seems to be a consistent problem with Calvinists. They misunderstand what non-Calvinists believe. To say that I believe that we have the ability to accomplish the miraculous work or being born again of our own effort is a serious misrepresentation that is common amongst Calvinists. My question – why do you do that?
It is also interesting that you think the ‘faith’ in Eph 2 is not a gift for every believer. Then I guess you would also like to be consistent and say that the salvation that is by grace through faith (which is what the verse is about) is not for every Christian.
Hold on here and back this truck up again. You are messing with the text again and making the gift in this passage as a noun instead of a action verb.
Ephesians 2:8–9 (NASB)
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;
9 not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.
The “gift” is salvation which is completely a work of God. It is a verb that is tied to verse 9 “not as a result of works”. The Greek term for “works” is:
work
? that which displays itself in activity of any kind, deed, action
? in contrast to rest Hb 4:3, 4 (Gen 2:2), 10. In contrast to word: freq. used to describe people of exceptional merit, esp. benefactors
Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed.) (pg 390).
The verb of God’s action in verse 8 (salvation) is contrasted with the “works” of man in verse 9 so that the action of salvation is “not of” yourselves and the action of salvation is not a result of (or out from) our works so that you can boast of what? So that no one can boast of working for a right standing with God. It alone (the work of God is the verb “salvation”) comes by grace (the cause of the work) through faith (the vehicle through which the action is delivered). There is no doubt at all that by the wording that “salvation” is the accomplishment that is done for us and given as a gift. See Wuest’s fine work here:
(2:8–10) The definite article appears before the word “grace” here, pointing the reader back to the same statement in verse 5, and informing him that the writer is to elaborate upon this previously mentioned statement. The reader of this exposition is urged to go back to the exegesis of verse 5 and refresh his memory as to the total meaning of Paul’s statement, “by grace are ye saved.”
The words, “through faith” speak of the instrument or means whereby the sinner avails himself of this salvation which God offers him in pure grace. Expositors says: “Paul never says ‘through the faith,’ as if the faith were the ground or procuring cause of the salvation.” Alford says: “It (the salvation) has been effected by grace and apprehended by faith.” The word “that” is touto (?????), “this,” a demonstrative pronoun in the neuter gender. The Greek word “faith” is feminine in gender and therefore touto (?????) could not refer to “faith.” It refers to the general idea of salvation in the immediate context. The translation reads, “and this not out from you as a source, of God (it is) the gift.” That is, salvation is a gift of God. It does not find its source in man. Furthermore, this salvation is not “out of a source of works.” This explains salvation by grace. It is not produced by man nor earned by him. It is a gift from God with no strings tied to it.
Wuest, K. S. (1997). Wuest’s word studies from the Greek New Testament : For the English reader (Eph 2:7–8).
Mark, you said:
You can’t have it both ways Cheryl. I’m afraid you have dug yourself into a hole with this one.
I find it amazing that Calvinists see Christian brothers and sisters in holes where no such holes exist. I am on solid grounds exegetically and the “gift” is not “faith” but the action verb “salvation” of which action only God can be source of.
Romans 3 is a quote from the psalms that is true. But to come to the conclusion that you have is misguided. We should ask the question- how is Paul using it here? What is the context? The verses before the quote give the answer.
Rom 3:9 What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin,…
The translation of the verse that you quoted does not give the full flavor of the Greek. It is an us vs them where we are righteous but all of them (Jews and Greeks) and not righteous. All of them are unrighteous (but believers are called righteous in the Scriptures) all of them do not understand (but we have been given understanding from God) none of them seeks for God (but those who accept God’s Word will seek for Him), all of them are deceivers (but Christians are not deceivers even though we are called this – 2 Cor. 6:8), none of them does good, but those who trust in God will do good, they are filled with cursing and bitterness, and destruction is in their path (but those who know their God will do exploits and they are on the path or righteousness), and they have not known peace (but we know peace as we have peace with God). This is not talking about all those are unregenerate as many have come to fear God and to seek for Him just as He commanded. But the fool who says there is no God is just like this. He curses and has bitterness in his heart because he doesn’t believe that there is anyone to be held accountable to.
No, Paul is not making the quote from the Psalms to say something that is the complete opposite of the context of atheist fools who have no peace, goodness, or righteousness. Rather Paul is comparing both Jewish and Gentile fools who do not fear God, to us who do fear God and who seek Him and find Him.
It doesn’t seem like Paul is talking only about those who do not seek God does it Cheryl? No, Paul clearly states that all are like this, Jew and Gentile, even himself.
Yes, Paul is talking about exactly what the writer of the Psalms was talking about. He was talking about the fools who refuse to obey God and who even deny His existence. They neither seek Him nor seek His righteousness. And no, not all are like this. Abraham was not like this, Noah was not like all the others and neither was Job. Even God’s own testimony is that Job was not like so many others.
Job 1:8 (NASB)
8 The LORD said to Satan, “Have you considered My servant Job? For there is no one like him on the earth, a blameless and upright man, fearing God and turning away from evil.”
You said:
I’m afraid Paul’s intention here, (noting that the first 3 chapters of Romans are dealing with everyone, Jew and Gentile) is that he is using this quote to support his view that every single person is like this.
If every single person is like this, then God lied because God said that Job is not like that. Are you really going to make God into a liar or will you admit that Paul isn’t using the quote from Psalms out of context and in a whole different meaning than the author of Psalms meant?
No one seeks God by themselves as dead in sin. I can’t understand why you would want to water our sinful nature down when the bible is so graphic about it.
What I don’t understand if why you want to make us incapable of seeking God when God shows very clearly that unregenerate people can and must seek Him. Why do you do this?
You can’t just dismiss the context of Romans 3 and Paul’s intention of using this quote to support his argument, as irrelevant and only rely on the Old Testament context. Paul is clearly using it here with another purpose.
So it seems to me that you are trying to make Paul dismiss the context of the Psalms quote and to illegally use it out of its context and to twist it to mean that Job, Abraham and Noah were all ungodly men who spoke evil things and did not seek God or have any good actions? That is impossible. Paul could not rip a Scripture out of its intended context and twist it to mean something else. God doesn’t do things like this and if I had to get my theology that way by twisting Scripture, then I would think twice as this is unlawful and not the way of the Master who uses Scripture in context.
I will get to your further comments later as I have time.
Cheryl,
I’m quite astonished really. What makes Noah righteous? His own free-will? No I don’t think so. Was it not his faith?
Heb 11:7 By faith Noah, being warned by God concerning events as yet unseen, in reverent fear constructed an ark for the saving of his household. By this he condemned the world and became an heir of the righteousness that comes by faith.
You see, it was his faith that made him righteous. And like Eph 2 says faith is a gift. By the way you have not dealt with why the faith in Eph 2 is only for some believers. Gen 6:5 can be taken to mean everyone-it should. We are all by nature corrupt and evil. It is only faith in God which makes us righteous. This whole idea that humanity are essentially good people is non-sense. We are sinful and we have a Holy God who does not tolerate sin.
“Um, where does the Bible say that we need a new heart in order to seek after God?”
Here is one passage
Eze 11:19 And I will give them one heart, and a new spirit I will put within them. I will remove the heart of stone from their flesh and give them a heart of flesh,
Eze 11:20 that they may walk in my statutes and keep my rules and obey them. And they shall be my people, and I will be their God.
This is at the heart of the new covenant. A new spiritual heart enables us to obey God.
I can’t see your point in referencing Deut because it actually proves my point. In Deut 10 God calls on the people to circumcise their hearts, but they can’t by themselves.They don’t actually do it. Deut 30 (if you actually looked at the context) is a prophetic word about what is going to happen after the exile. It will be God who does the circumcision of the heart. This is the new covenant. See Jer 31:31ff also. So you have just proven my point. We can’t give ourselves a heart of flesh, only God can and only God does with the new covenant.
“There is nothing at all in the Scriptures that I have seen that says God must give us a new heart before we can seek Him.”
Look more at the context of Deut as a whole. Look at the failure of the Jews to keep the covenant in their own strength. Look at Jeremiah 31, Ezekial 11, and also Ezekial 36.
Eze 36:24 I will take you from the nations and gather you from all the countries and bring you into your own land.
Eze 36:25 I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you shall be clean from all your uncleannesses, and from all your idols I will cleanse you.
Eze 36:26 And I will give you a new heart, and a new spirit I will put within you. And I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh.
Eze 36:27 And I will put my Spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes and be careful to obey my rules.
This is another prophecy of the New Covenant. God gives a new heart of flesh. God gives his Spirit so that we can obey God’s statutes. This was the problem with the Jews, they did not have a heart of flesh. They did not have the outpouring of the Spirit to enable them to keep covenant. We do only because God acts first.
“Where does the Bible say that Cornelius was born again before he heard the gospel?”
You can’t keep copping out and saying everything is human tradition Cheryl, it’s hardly convincing. Now about Cornelius, did God do something before he accepted the message of salvation from Peter? Did he have a vision, did he see an angel of God? Did he not experience all this before he heard the gospel. Yes he did. This is God working before the message of Jesus was even preached. This is the issue. Does God intervene in people’s lives before they hear the message so that they may believe. According to Acts 10 yes, aswell as the rest of the New Testament. Although the words ‘born again’ are not used here by Luke does not mean that God did not work in Cornelius before he accepted the message.
The kingdom of God is twofold Cheryl. It came in Jesus, but it is still yet to come until the final consummation. This is the now/not yet tension. I would have thought you would have learnt that in your studies. So we enter the kingdom of God when we are saved into Jesus name, but we are still waiting to enter it entirely when we go to eternity. You have not dealt with John 3 at all. John 3 is clear that we are to be born again BEFORE we see or enter the kingdom of heaven. How can this be if it is after salvation?
“First of all, not every heart is stone. Those who harden their hearts against God’s call will eventually turn their heart to stone, but not all harden their hearts. Many will respond with gladness to His call.”
So what is Ezekial 36:26 referencing then if not everybody? I’m afraid you are going to have to deal with the fact that God hardens hearts aswell.
Rom 9:18 So then he (God) has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills.
I agree that many will respond with gladness, but I reject that they do this on their own without God opening their eyes to the message.
“It would be a cruel act for God to command men everywhere to seek Him if He was the One deliberately stopping them from seeking Him.”
Unfortunately Cheryl I hear this a lot. And the reason people say it is because they want God to fit into their picture of what God is. The Bible though is radically different. Romans 9 is clear on God’s election and calling. Paul even expects an objection like the one you just stated. What is his answer?
Rom 9:13 As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”
Rom 9:14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God’s part? By no means!
Rom 9:15 For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.”
Rom 9:16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy.
Rom 9:17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I might show my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.”
Rom 9:18 So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills.
Rom 9:19 You will say to me then, “Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?”
Rom 9:20 But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, “Why have you made me like this?”
Rom 9:21 Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for dishonorable use?
There are a few very important points here. Our salvation DOES NOT depend on human will or exertion, BUT on God’s mercy alone. God hardens whom he wants and has mercy on whom he wants. When people object to this (like you Cheryl), Paul’s answer is simple, who are you to talk back to God. We have no right to say what is just and unjust, we are the clay and God is the potter.
So maybe you do therefore think God is cruel. That is for you to work out, but you can’t keep trying to fit God only into your own box of what love and mercy are. I challenge you to think that one through a little more. And please don’t attempt to say that Romans 9 is not saying what it seems to be saying. Exegetically it is, and those scholars who attempt to change it’s meaning simply look ridiculous.
97 Mark,
By the way let me be clear that i do not think that non-calvinists are not Christians. I myself was not always convinced of reformed theology but i would never have said i wasn’t saved. Nor do i think that others are not saved.
I simply believe that as i have grown in my walk we God he has been gracious to open my eyes to new hard truths of the bible even when they seem unfair.I will however always protest when i think the gospel is at stake, and i believe it is at stake when we deny that faith is a gift of God for all believers.
I am going to answer the above comment first because my answer should help Mark and others to know the background of where I am coming from.
Mark, although you said that you believe that non-Calvinists can be Christians, in actuality you deny that by the above remarks. You see, the gospel is not a secondary issue of faith. It is an essential of the faith. If you create an addition to that gospel by saying that one must believe that saving faith is not our own faith in God’s Word but a gift that God gives only to the elect, then you are dividing the body of Christ by making anyone who does not agree with you as ones who do not believe the gospel. And if we do not believe the true gospel, which apparently only Calvinists can believe, then we how can we be true Christians? It is inconsistent to that one can be a true Christian and yet not believe the gospel.
This division is a sin that Calvinists bring against their brothers and sisters in Christ. By defining the gospel as something other than what is clearly stated as the gospel, Calvinists set their Christian brothers and sisters outside of the Christian camp and in need of conversion to Calvinism in order to believe the gospel and be saved.
In the past I was a part of a church that was split because of the issue of Calvinism. The church I belonged to was not a Calvinist church but the new pastor who came into the church was on his way to being a full blown Calvinist and when he decided that only Calvinism was the truth, he pressured the church to accept his doctrine. Those who balked at his teaching that God justly sends unborn babies go to hell to pay for their “sins” by suffering for all of eternity, those ones were singled out as dangerous to the church for not going along with “the truth” that is embodied in Calvinism.
It wasn’t long before mature Christians were threatened with letters to kick them out of the church for not accepting Calvinism. There was no longer love for the brethren in their differences. It was his way or the highway. Since God was taught as arbitrary in His decision on who would be created to go to Heaven and who would created to go to hell, this pastor had no hesitation to act like an arbitrary “god” in removing brothers and sisters in Christ merely for quoting Scripture in the Bible studies with verses that did not agree with his Calvinistic viewpoint. After all, if they didn’t accept Calvinism were they really one of the elect? That is the reasoning that this doctrine ends with when pushed to its logical conclusion and it was acted out in my old church. Without any appearance of conscience the pastor broke all the rules of the constitution in order to try to remove from fellowship mature Christians, some of whom had been there when the church building was first built in the 1970’s. The additional truth that he had accepted as necessary for the “gospel” divided brothers and sisters in Christ.
God hates this division. Those attenders whom the pastor convinced that they were now Calvinists because they believed that God pulled at their heart and brought them to the place of faith were confused. They didn’t even understand the basics of Calvinism nor the volumes of work written to explain the entire system of Calvinism, but they were taught that the believers who would not be converted were the enemy and unless he removed them from the fellowship, God’s “truth” could not progress.
I have seen the destruction of Calvinists first hand who destroy their brothers for the sake of their love of a doctrine. I refuse to say that Calvinists are not brothers in Christ or that Calvinists do not believe in the gospel, but I also refuse to allow them to divide the body of Christ and destroy those for whom Christ died. Some of the church members were so traumatized by the lack of love by the pastor and the tearing apart of the church for the sake of a “doctrine”, that a handful of people ended up in the hospital with various types of stress related diseases and symptoms that took months to resolve.
So, Mark, while I welcome you here and I will allow areas of Calvinism to be debated when they deal with the issues of women in ministry (i.e. Adam and sin nature), I will not tolerate the charge that the gospel that I believe is not the Biblical gospel. The gospel that I and other non-Calvinists believe is not different than what you believe because there is only one gospel. If you want to add Calvinist distinctives to the gospel, then you have stepped out on a limb – a very precarious limb.
1 Corinthians 15:1–4 (NASB)
1 Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand,
2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain.
3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,
4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
It is the death of Jesus, his burial and resurrection that is the heart of the gospel. We can debate the issue of whether faith is a gift of God or a response of man, but it is not listed in the gospel as an essential belief. If you divide over this and accuse your brothers and sisters of not believing the gospel because we do not believe that saving faith is a gift of God given to only a select few unregenerate people, then you are going to have to answer to God one day for what you have done. Jesus Christ takes a dim view of those who divide the church over the non-essentials.
Titus 3:9–10 (NASB)
9 But avoid foolish controversies and genealogies and strife and disputes about the Law, for they are unprofitable and worthless.
10 Reject a factious man after a first and second warning,
A factious man is literally a “heretic” one who causes divisions in the body.
hairetikos: denoting loyalty to a separatist group heretical, factious, causing divisions
Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament.
And Romans 16:17 warns us to keep an eye on those who bring divisions into the body of Christ:
Romans 16:17 (NASB)
17 Now I urge you, brethren, keep your eye on those who cause dissensions and hindrances contrary to the teaching which you learned, and turn away from them.
The term “dissensions” means division.
dichostasia: strictly standing apart; hence disunity, dissension, division within a community
Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. (pg 118).
So once again to repeat, I will allow any challenge of my position regarding the issues of women in ministry including issues of Calvinism on the issue of sin, but I will not allow division by calling Christian brothers and sisters in Christ as non-believers in the gospel because they are not Calvinists. I am doing what Scripture advises me to do to keep any eye on those who are divisive and who bring harm to the body. Argue passionately, sure. But don’t attack your brothers and sisters in Christ and demand that they become Calvinists or else they don’t believe the gospel.
I am trying to be as gracious as I can while drawing a line in the sand and I hope I have made myself clear. Thoughts?
Mark,
You said:
In the 2 Chronicles verse, you forgot to mention the verse before which show God intervening through the Prophet Azariah. So the same principle applies, God has to work first before we can respond.
I didn’t need to “forget to mention” the previous verse because I am not disputing that God uses many things to make people reconsider their need for Him. But the issue is not whether God works, but whether unregenerate people can see God.
2 Chronicles 15:4 (NET)
15:4 Because of their distress, they turned back to the LORD God of Israel. They sought him and he responded to them.
So once again the Scriptures I quoted stand unrefuted.
Another point to note is that the Bible never talks about our own free-will, as if we can accept God by ourselves especially in the verses you quoted.
That is another thing where Calvinists misunderstand non-Calvinists. Who on earth is claiming that we can come to God without His drawing us? Not me. No one can come to God without Him drawing them. The difference between us is not that one believes man has the power to come to God on his own terms, because I don’t believe that. The difference is that I believe God is willing to draw all men to Himself while you believe that God predeterminately selects only a few unregenerate to draw them to Himself without any conditions and without any faith on their own behalf.
These passages are silent on why the people turned to God, but we have other clear passage which show us why people do turn, namely, because God intervenes. Does Jesus not say that no-one can come to the Father unless the Father draws him?
This is not the issue since I have already agreed that God must draw people. The issue is whether one must be born again first become one can seek for God. The Bible never says that a person is changed from an unregenerate person into a born again person and then and only then can he seek God.
John 3- Cheryl, what is the kingdom of God, if not a relationship with him?
A relationship with Jesus is never called “the kingdom of God”. It is called “knowing” Him.
John 17:3 (NASB)
3 “This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.
On the contrary, the term “the kingdom of God” is something that Christians will enter into in the future. It is not a term of relationship. I do notice that many times you give your own ideas but you don’t quote the Scriptures. I submit it is because there are no Scriptures to support your view and so you have nothing to document from the Bible.
What does Jesus mean by being born again? I would like to know your opinion?
Born again is a supernatural act of God where ones heart is changed from the nature of the “old man” to the nature of the second adam.
James 1:18 (NASB)
18 In the exercise of His will He brought us forth by the word of truth, so that we would be a kind of first fruits among His creatures.When are we born of the Spirit (verse 5)? You must believe that the Spirit of God does not enter our life until we respond in faith right?
We are born of the Spirit when we are saved. The Jailer asked how he could be saved and Paul and Silas didn’t say to him that he must be saved already (born again) if he is asking the question. Rather they told him that he must believe in order to be saved.
Acts 16:30–32 (NASB)
30 and after he brought them out, he said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?”
31 They said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.”
32 And they spoke the word of the Lord to him together with all who were in his house.So if we can circumcise our own heart by our own repentance, why did we need the new covenant. Didn’t at least some of the Jews repent Cheryl?
We circumcise our own heart by our repentance but this doesn’t save us. Only God’s work that is done by condition of our repentance and faith will bring salvation. Those who repented and believed God in the OT were promised that they would be given God’s covenant.
Psalm 25:12–14 (NASB)
12 Who is the man who fears the LORD?
He will instruct him in the way he should choose.
13 His soul will abide in prosperity,
And his descendants will inherit the land.
14 The secret of the LORD is for those who fear Him,
And He will make them know His covenant.
For the OT saints who feared God, they were promised that the son of righteousness will arise for them on that day that the Lord is preparing and for those who fear Him, they will belong to God as His own possession.
Malachi 3:16–Malachi 4 (NASB)
16 Then those who feared the LORD spoke to one another, and the LORD gave attention and heard it, and a book of remembrance was written before Him for those who fear the LORD and who esteem His name.
17 “They will be Mine,” says the LORD of hosts, “on the day that I prepare My own possession, and I will spare them as a man spares his own son who serves him.”
18 So you will again distinguish between the righteous and the wicked, between one who serves God and one who does not serve Him.Chapter 4
2 “But for you who fear My name, the sun of righteousness will rise with healing in its wings; and you will go forth and skip about like calves from the stall.
3 “You will tread down the wicked, for they will be ashes under the soles of your feet on the day which I am preparing,” says the LORD of hosts.
All those who belonged to the Father through their fear of Him and their faith were promised the covenant and they were given to Jesus.
John 6:37 (NASB)
37 “All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out.
Everyone who belongs to the Father will come to Jesus.
Your view makes the new covenant un-necessary.
No, not at all because the new covenant is fulfilled in Jesus. All who belonged to the Father in the OT would be brought into the new covenant through Jesus.
In our own strength we are nothing and can do nothing to save ourselves. Again I must protest that you are stealing the glory from God in HIS work. It is not our own doing.
Who is stealing the glory from God? You again greatly misunderstand. We cannot save ourselves. The new birth is the miracle working of God alone and we cannot work this miracle. It belongs to God alone.
To continue…
It is another day and we will see how much we can get through today.
Mark,
You said:
You said “Faith in God and receiving Jesus comes before we become children of God.”
Really Cheryl, I don’t think Romans 8 says this
Romans 8 does not contradict this at all. If you think it does, please show me where it says that we are children of God before we receive Jesus.
Does the Bible say that those who received Him are given the right to become children of God?
John 1:12 (NASB)
12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name,
Does the Bible say that we are sons of God through faith? Or are we sons of God without any regard to our faith?
Galatians 3:26 (NASB)
26 For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
Now I ask you to show me one verse that says we are born again without faith. You have not done so and if you can please do. show it to me.
We were predestined to be conformed to Jesus image before we are justified according to these verses.
Sure. But we are not “born again” before have faith. That isn’t scriptural.
We were God’s children CHOSEN before the world was created according to Eph 1:4.
Sorry, but this isn’t true. We are not “God’s children” before the world was created. Before we came to faith we were enemies of God not children of God.
If only you realised Cheryl, that you were God’s chosen child before you even knew about Him.
I already realize that. The question is not what I was before I was born, but why. What was the condition that God foreknew me in Christ? We won’t be debating this because it goes off the topic of women in ministry, but know for sure that I agree with the Bible when the Bible plainly says something and when we need philosophy and human reasoning to give reason for things that God is silent on, I do not accept man’s reasoning.
It is true that John 1 says we become God’s child after we trust in Jesus. I believe that, but I also believe that bible clearly teaches that this was God’s plan for my life before the world was even created.
But that is not what we are discussing. We are discussing whether you are born again before you have faith. And the Scriptural answer is “no”.
I’m interested to know how you pray for your unsaved friends Cheryl. Do you pray for God to open their eyes or to soften their hearts? Or do you not even ask God to help and just believe that their own free-will is good enough?
This shows a clear misunderstanding of the Sovereignty of God outside of Calvinism. You won’t find me saying that man is able to will himself as a Christian and doesn’t need God to draw Him. It is too bad that Calvinists think so little of our common Christian faith but seem to want to see other Christians as having a man centered gospel. It is a pity.
You see everyone believes in the sovereignty of God when they pray and ask God to intervene, even if you deny it when you speak to me.
Oh brother! Why on earth you keep saying that I deny the Sovereignty of God is beyond me. It is like I say one thing and you turn it around to say I am denying the very thing I am fighting for. I am really curious. Why do you do that?
Being ‘born-again’ is God opening their eyes to the message of the cross.
No it is not. Being born again is a miraculous work that transforms and renews and brings God’s life to a heart that was separated from God and lost in sin. It is opening of the eyes. It is a transformation.
We in sin are dead people according to Eph 2 therefore we need to be re-born and made alive, and like i said ealier, EPh 2 tells us that it is God who makes us alive not oursleves.
And like I said, of course it is God who makes us alive in Him and it is not ourselves at all. But is this miracle something that happens before faith? Not according to the Scriptures.
Being born again definitely comes before faith. It is the work of the spirit in unregenerate man so that he can accept the message of salvation.
You have said that before. Show me from the Scriptures that Cornelius became born again before he heard the message. And why would he need to hear the message if he was already born again?? He doesn’t need the message to be saved if he is already saved? Why is this reasoning so contradictory to the Scripture and never found explicitly in the Scriptures? I don’t accept it because I want Bible only not human reasoning.
Roman 14- I agree with the context, but the verse still says what it says. Everything not done in faith is sin, whether you’re a believer or unbeliever.
Show me where it says that everything that an unbeliever does that is not in faith is a sin? And how can an unbeliever do anything in faith? Wouldn’t that make him a believer? The context never mentions unbelievers so you just slip them in. Now show me a context that talks about unbelievers and how everything they do is sin even if it is a good work. Go ahead. I will wait patiently for your verses.
The reason being that everything is to be done for the glory of God. IF it is not done in faith in God how can it give glory to God, it simply can’t. I can’t see why you would deny this biblical verse.
You haven’t shown me a verse that includes unbelievers. And can you imagine Jesus saying to the Pharisees, that even though they are evil, they can do good, but they shouldn’t even try to do good, because any good they do is really just sinning more and more. So maybe Jesus would be telling these Pharisees to keep on sinning more and more because it is less offensive to God than if they are helpful and kind to their families. God just hates kind unbelievers, right?
Where does it say this in the bible? God demands that we follow him and no other, but I haven’t seen anywhere where the bible says we have the ‘freedom to seek God’.
God gives us two options and never just one. We can seek Him or we can reject Him.
1 Chronicles 28:9 (NASB)
9 “As for you, my son Solomon, know the God of your father, and serve Him with a whole heart and a willing mind; for the LORD searches all hearts, and understands every intent of the thoughts. If you seek Him, He will let you find Him; but if you forsake Him, He will reject you forever.
And Jesus promised that those who seek will find.
Matthew 7:7 (NASB)
7 “Ask, and it will be given to you; seek, and you will find; knock, and it will be opened to you.
Now show me a verse that says that God will only allow some to seek Him and Him and most He will purposely stop them from seeking Him and purposely stop them from finding Him although He demands that they seek Him? Go ahead and show me where only some are enabled to seek God.
Aren’t we as fallen people living in the darkness, suppressing the truth, until God opens our eyes?
No. Romans 1:18 doesn’t say that all men suppress the truth. But the passage says that those who deliberately suppress the truth, God gives them up. Here is a description of them:
Romans 1:26–27 (NASB)
26 For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural,
27 and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.
Are you in this group? Were you given up to degrading passions and did you burn in your desire for other men? No? Then this passage is not about all people, but about those who purposely suppress the truth. I didn’t do that and likely you didn’t either.
I agree that faith is not a work, it is because it is a gift of God so that none can boast.
If faith is not a work, then man’s faith is not a work either.
If faith is something we do without God, then it is a work of ours because it doesn’t stem from God, therefore you have works based salvation.
You just contradicted yourself. You said that faith is not a work, then you said that our faith is a works based salvation. Either faith is a work or it is not.
Secondly we cannot have faith without God for we cannot even have faith in God without Him drawing us. I don’t know anyone who is teaching that faith exists independent of God working on us an drawing us to Himself. That is true faith. It is a response to God’s work. It is not a gift that God gives arbitrarily to a few. It is a response not a gift.
This is the problem with your view. You can’t skirt around the issue. You need to do better at convincing me that you are not promoting a works based salvation.
I am not skirting around the issue. I am answering every one of your questions. Before I take a stab at convincing you that I am not promoting a works based salvation, please show me from the Scripture where a man’s faith is a work. i.e. Abraham believed God is Abraham’s faith in God’s revelation. The text doesn’t say that God gave Abraham the gift of faith, but rather Abraham believed God’s word. Where is the accusation that Abraham was making this a works based faith?
The fact is that faith is the direct opposite of works. Every place it is mention in conjunction with works, it is in opposition to works except for the book of James where our works are necessary to show our faith to others. But our faith is never ever called a “work” to God.
Like I said Pelagianism (Augustine) and semi-pelagianism (reformers) were both condemned. How is your view not semi-pelagianism Cheryl?
Once again you are implying that I am a heretic and not a sister in Christ. Why do you do that?
I do not believe that works are required for salvation. In fact I believe that relying on works removes our faith. Our faith is the exact opposite works and not a single Scripture says that our faith is looked on by God as a work for salvation.
I am honestly tired of being called a heretic and then you trying to say that I am really a sister in Christ. You are confused at the seriousness of heresy.
Mark,
It looks like you and I are online at the same time for once. Welcome buddy! I am going to answer your last set of questions now and catch up on the others just because you are here…now.
You said:
It appears that we disagree on being born again. Let me just state what i think it is and what i think it isn’t.
Being born again is not being saved. Being born again is being made alive when we are dead in our sins, so that we may have faith and believe in Jesus and then be saved. Being born again happens before salvation not after.
Mark, it isn’t a matter of what we “think” being born again is, but what the Scriptures say it is. Is being born again making a corpse live?
John 3:6–7 (NASB)
6 “That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
7 “Do not be amazed that I said to you, ‘You must be born again.’
From this scripture, we can see that the birth that Jesus is talking about is the birth “of the Spirit”. It is something brand new. Something that wasn’t there before, but is now born “of the Spirit”.
Jesus is talking to an unsaved man and reasoning through the Scriptures with Him. Jesus didn’t say to him that he can’t believe in Him until he is born again. He doesn’t say that there will be no faith until you are born again. And Jesus doesn’t say to him that you are dead. Jesus reasons with him as one who is capable of understanding. In verse 7 Jesus says “do not be amazed”. Jesus said “truly truly I say to you…” If the dead man could not hear Him, it was a waste of Jesus time to preach the gospel to him. Jesus was given this unregenerate man reason to believe in Him.
Another great passage is in 1 Peter 1:
1 Peter 1:3–5 (NASB)
3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His great mercy has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
4 to obtain an inheritance which is imperishable and undefiled and will not fade away, reserved in heaven for you,
5 who are protected by the power of God through faith for a salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.
Here we see that being born again is tied into the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead and being born again makes one an heir of God. We can also see in verse 5 by being born again is tied to salvation through faith. It is never something that belongs to an unregenerate man. No person is born again who is not an heir of salvation at their rebirth. No person is born again who is not there “through faith”. Being born again is inseparably connected to our salvation and our inheritance so that it is absolutely impossible for an unbeliever to be born again.
This is the heart break of Calvinism that teaches that unsaved people are “born of the Spirit”. Those who are unbelievers cannot know the new birth nor can they know the One who gives the new birth.
John 14:16–17 (NASB)
16 “I will ask the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may be with you forever;
17 that is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not see Him or know Him, but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you.
Mark, I ask you, was Jesus wrong? Can the world (unbelievers) receive the Spirit of truth through the new birth? He said that the Holy Spirit cannot be received by the world. An unbeliever cannot know the Holy Spirit or experience Him (which is knowing Him). It is impossible for the new birth to come through unbelief. It is only by faith by believing God because an unbeliever cannot know the Holy Spirit.
Also:
1 Peter 1:22–23 (NASB)
22 Since you have in obedience to the truth purified your souls for a sincere love of the brethren, fervently love one another from the heart,
23 for you have been born again not of seed which is perishable but imperishable, that is, through the living and enduring word of God.
Being born again is not bringing to life a dead person, but it is a new life through a new “seed”. It is reviving the old, but giving something new. The “seed” of God is never within an unbeliever.
And lastly:
1 John 3:9 (NASB)
9 No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
Here John talks about being born again as one “born of God” as His “seed” within us. John makes a big deal about this “seed” of God within us so much so that those who are “born of God” with His seed cannot continue to sin because he has been reborn. Does this fit unbelievers? Do they have God’s “seed” within them?
Now I ask you – where does it say that those who have God’s seed within them are not saved? Where does it say that they are just brought to life but without faith and without salvation?
Kay, I love your smilie!! Glad someone else is following this post. I wasn’t sure if anyone would be interested in this side discussion.
- “No. Romans 1:18 doesn’t say that all men suppress the truth. But the passage says that those who deliberately suppress the truth, God gives them up. Here is a description of them:
Romans 1:26–27 (NASB)
26 For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural,
27 and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.
Are you in this group? Were you given up to degrading passions and did you burn in your desire for other men? No? Then this passage is not about all people, but about those who purposely suppress the truth. I didn’t do that and likely you didn’t either.”
Why stop at verse 27 Cheryl…let’s keep going
Rom 1:28 And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, God gave them up to a debased mind to do what ought not to be done.
Rom 1:29 They were filled with all manner of unrighteousness, evil, covetousness, malice. They are full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, maliciousness. They are gossips,
Rom 1:30 slanderers, haters of God, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents,
Rom 1:31 foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless.
Rom 1:32 Though they know God’s decree that those who practice such things deserve to die, they not only do them but give approval to those who practice them.
Surely you and I have both coveted, surely we have both been slanderers and gossips and boastful etc. This is the nature of humanity not just one specific group. Sexual sins are just one aspect of our fallen humanity. We are depraved creatures- totally. You are wrong to say this is just one specific group of people. Isaiah 53:6 sums it up nicely- we all like sheep have gone astray and turned to our own ways.
I can’t show you that Cornelius was born again- I don’t deny that. But not every conversion in the bible says ‘and they were born again before they believed’. We don’t always have every detail for every occasion. The problem is though to say that we don’t need to be born again contradicts Jn 3, and contradictions are not acceptable. You have swept it away be changing what born again means and what the kingdom is.
Now about being a child of God. I have agreed with you that we are children of God once we believe. However like I said Romans 8 and Eph 1 also talk about this being God’s choice or plan before the foundation of the world. So although we were enemies of God before believing, we were always planned to be children of God. Our union with Christ has been layed down from the beginning. Do you understand what I mean?
You still haven’t answered how you pray for your un christian friends- you dodged it. Also please explain your idea of God’s sovereignty? Do you believe God is sovereign in that he made himself vulnerable in creating the world like many do?
You said “No it is not. Being born again is a miraculous work that transforms and renews and brings God’s life to a heart that was separated from God and lost in sin. It is opening of the eyes. It is a transformation.”
Now the funny thing is I agree with this. We are lost in sin, we are dead. We are totally seperated from God. Therefore how do we accept the message of salvation. It is interesting that you say it is opening of the eyes. Look what I said just before you said ‘No it is not”
Being ‘born-again’ is God opening their eyes to the message of the cross.
Inconsistency??? You can’t say to me I’m wrong and then in your definition say the same thing. I’m confused. If you truly believe your description how then can people still accept the message of salvation without being born again? You keep saying that being born again before faith is unscriptural yet you have not dealt with Jn 3. Perhaps we should discuss that more?
Let me get something straight. You agree that Romans 14 is saying in the context of believers that everything not done in faith is sin? Yet you disagree that unbelievers (who have no faith in Christ) are not doing everything in sin. Here is my opinion for what it is worth. Everything any of us does is sin unless God gives us grace. It is only be grace that unbelievers do good things. It is only by grace that believers do good things- this is common grace to all of us. People can do good things (like the Pharisees) because God is gracious to them. However it is still not done in faith in God.
“God just hates kind unbelievers, right?”
I don’t believe God hates unbelievers. Ezekial 18:23 tells us that he does not take pleasure in the death of the wicked. But we must remember God is Holy. When we sin, we sin against a infinite Holy God. If we do not do things in faith then it is sin. This is why the fall of Adam and Eve was so disasterous.
- “Now show me a verse that says that God will only allow some to seek Him and Him and most He will purposely stop them from seeking Him and purposely stop them from finding Him although He demands that they seek Him? Go ahead and show me where only some are enabled to seek God.”
I have agreed with you all along that we are all called to seek after God. But how can we as sinners. Again Romans 3 says none seeks after God. This is why we are held accountable. God demands that we seek him, but in our sinfulness we don’t. This is why Jesus words are so important.
Joh 6:65 And he said, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father.”
Only when God grants it, can sinners come to Jesus. We cannot seek God by ourselves. Now do you believe that God has granted EVERYONE in this verse to come to Jesus?
Also think about why Jesus spoke in Parables
Mat 13:11 And he answered them, “To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been given.
Mat 13:12 For to the one who has, more will be given, and he will have an abundance, but from the one who has not, even what he has will be taken away.
Mat 13:13 This is why I speak to them in parables, because seeing they do not see, and hearing they do not hear, nor do they understand.
Mat 13:14 Indeed, in their case the prophecy of Isaiah is fulfilled that says: “‘You will indeed hear but never understand, and you will indeed see but never perceive.
Mat 13:15 For this people’s heart has grown dull, and with their ears they can barely hear, and their eyes they have closed, lest they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears and understand with their heart and turn, and I would heal them.’
Mat 13:16 But blessed are your eyes, for they see, and your ears, for they hear.
Mat 13:17 For truly, I say to you, many prophets and righteous people longed to see what you see, and did not see it, and to hear what you hear, and did not hear it.
A few important things here. He spoke in parables so people WOULD NOT understand, lest they turn. Also many prophets and RIGHTEOUS people longed to hear the truth of Jesus but did not. Not everyone is giving the same grace by God to seek after him. I wait for your reply since the bible clearly answers your challenge.
‘You just contradicted yourself. You said that faith is not a work, then you said that our faith is a works based salvation. Either faith is a work or it is not.’
Here is my conviction because you seem confused. Saving faith is a gift therefore faith is not a work. When we deny that saving faith is a gift, then we make it into a work. See the difference? Faith becomes a work for those who reject it as a gift of God.
Semi-pelagianism was condemned, that is reality. It denied that our salvation was fully the work of God. It denied that faith, repentance etc are the gracious gifts of God. It maintained that we as fallen people still have the capacity (with a little bit of God’s help but not all) to come after and seek God. It is the same old problem that the church has faced. How free-will and God’s sovereignty go hand in hand. Maybe you can clearly outline how you see salvation works? Give me a clear step by step outline of how and when God works and how and when human free-will works. Perhaps then I will understand more your view.
“Scripture doesn’t say that faith is a gift of God to unbelievers. If so, please show me where it says this.”
Eph 2 says that we were dead in sin. BUT, God made us alive in Christ. How? By grace you have been saved through faith- AND THIS IS NOT FROM YOURSELVES, it is a GIFT of God.
Faith is a part of our salvation process- it is the very means by how we are saved. If grace is a gift given to unbelievers in this verse, how is faith not also given to unbelievers?
“What I have seen from reading these books is a God who has mercy on so few yet the Scriptures tell me that God is rich in mercy.’
I agree that God is rich in mercy- none of us deserve to be saved, we have all fallen short of the glory of God have we not? But still only a limited number of people are saved. Even you believe this because you are not a universalist. You can’t discredit Calvinists because they believe that a limited number are saved. Any evangelical believes that, reformed or not.
“And another thing I notice about the Scriptures is that God freely gives His lovingkindness toward those who fear Him.”
I agree!
“Should we say that those who “fear God” are doing a works based salvation? Should we say that God gives the “gift” of fear to some? No. Fearing God is faith in God and it is our response, not a gift reserved for an elite few.”
If we say that fearing God saves us and that it is in our own strength, then yes it is works based. But the scripture never saids that. David is a great example of all this. He was a God fearing man, he worshiped God, he loved God. Yet he continually asked that God would enable him to do this. See Psalm 119. Here is just a snipet
Psa 119:33 Teach me, O LORD, the way of your statutes; and I will keep it to the end.
Psa 119:34 Give me understanding, that I may keep your law and observe it with my whole heart.
Psa 119:35 Lead me in the path of your commandments, for I delight in it.
Psa 119:36 Incline my heart to your testimonies, and not to selfish gain!
Psa 119:37 Turn my eyes from looking at worthless things; and give me life in your ways.
Psa 119:38 Confirm to your servant your promise, that you may be feared.
Psa 119:39 Turn away the reproach that I dread, for your rules are good.
Psa 119:40 Behold, I long for your precepts; in your righteousness give me life!
David didn’t trust in his own fear or faith or ability. He knew all these things were the gift of God. He prayed to his Father that God may continue to bless him with those things. This is the reformed position in a nutshell. We look to God for everything, not trusting in our own strength, and we recognise that God grants things in his sovereign will to some and not others. But we dare never look to our own strength and ability nor should we think we know who God bestows his gifts too. That is for Him to know not for us to judge.
Anyway I need to take a break. I’l let you catch up before I comment again.
Ok one last point since it regards universal language
1. John 12:32 (NASB)
32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.”
Is there any reason why I should doubt Jesus? If He said that He will draw all men to Himself, then He certainly didn’t fail to do what He prophesied.
I don’t think you should doubt Jesus. But I don’t think taking universal language the way you do is correct. After all Romans 5 says that Jesus justified ‘all’ men. Should we take that to mean every single person. Now I know your not a universalist so I’m sure you don’t, therefore why do you take Jn 12 to mean every single person in the world? Not only that but how does Jesus draw all the people in the world who have never heard about Him. Why should we bother reaching the unreached if Jesus has already drawn them? See the problem? We need to be careful when the bible uses universal language and not just pick and choose to fit our theology. For example here is a good one.
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him.
Do you think John’s intention here is that every single person in the world did not recognize or know Jesus. Surely not because we know from the gospels that people did. This is the problem with basing a theology on universal terms- you come across so many contradictions.
Now also about Jn 12:32 look closely at verse 33
Joh 12:32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.”
Joh 12:33 He said this to show by what kind of death he was going to die.
If Jesus said this about his death, how can he draw every single person unless his intention was that his death brought atonement and salvation for every single person. This simply is not the case because not everyone is saved. I don’t believe this verse supports your argument at all. John is particularly a writer who uses universal language a lot, and many people bring contradictions into the text by adopting wrong conclusions on universal language.
After all we use universal language ‘all’ the time (that was a joke)
Mark,
You said:
Mat 3:2 “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”
Now is he talking about heaven Cheryl?
kingdom of heaven Sure seems like he is talking about heaven to me.
Jesus after giving the parable of the sower saids to his disciples
Mat 13:18 “Hear then the parable of the sower:
Mat 13:19 When anyone hears the word of the kingdom and does not understand it, the evil one comes and snatches away what has been sown in his heart. This is what was sown along the path.
What is the word of the kingdom? Is it only something future?
The “word” is another way to say the gospel of the kingdom.
a statement: 33.98
b speech: 33.99
c gospel: 33.260
d treatise: 33.51
e Word: 33.100
f account: 57.228
g reason: 89.18
h event: 13.115
i appearance: 30.13
Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. (1996). Vol. 2: Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament : Based on semantic domains
The “good news” of the kingdom is the message of the coming kingdom. The kingdom is still future, but the good news is spoken now.
Again Jesus saids
Mat 13:24 He put another parable before them, saying, “The kingdom of heaven may be compared to a man who sowed good seed in his field,
Once again as your quote shows, this is about the kingdom of heaven. This is to come.
Mark 13:31-33 is also about the kingdom of heaven.
Matthew 18:23 is about a future coming kingdom where the accounts are “settled”. Sure hasn’t happened yet.
Matthew 19:14 is also about a future kingdom.
Matthew 19:23, 24 is about entering the kingdom of “heaven”. This is future again.
Matt. 20:1 and following is about the kingdom of heaven and the reckoning that happens in the kingdom. That reckoning has not yet happened. Once again it is consistently in the future.
There are so many references to the kingdom of God that I simply cannot go through them all, but to say the kindom is only future is a big mistake.
Let me be clear: The kingdom is future, but the preaching about the kingdom is now.
Therefore that is why Jn 3 is so clear that we need to be born again before we can even see or enter the kingdom. You have a wrong understanding of the kingdom and a wrong understanding of being born again.
My friend, it is you who have a wrong understanding. No unregenerate person is ever said to be “born again” and no “unregenerate born-again person” is prepared for the kingdom of heaven. In fact the terms “unregenerate” and “born-again” are opposites. They cannot exist together.
In a classic passage about the future kingdom, Jesus talks about entering the kingdom and it is future “on that day”.
Matthew 7:21–23 (NASB)
21 “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter.
22 “Many will say to Me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?’
23 “And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.’
I wonder why you didn’t quote these verses? Is it because they are so obvious about a future judgment and a future entering into the kingdom that they cannot even be twisted to be about the here and the now?
And how about Matt 8:11?
Matthew 8:11 (NASB)
11 “I say to you that many will come from east and west, and recline at the table with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven;
This is the time that the OT saints looked forward to and it is clearly in the future where the dead OT saints have been resurrected.
In fact everything about the “kingdom of heaven” is so obviously in the future and not in operation on the earth.
Two last verses that are of note:
John 18:36 (NASB)
36 Jesus answered, “My kingdom is not of this world. If My kingdom were of this world, then My servants would be fighting so that I would not be handed over to the Jews; but as it is, My kingdom is not of this realm.”
If the kingdom had already arrived, then why did Jesus teach his disciples to pray for God’s kingdom to come?
Luke 11:2 (NASB)
2 And He said to them, “When you pray, say:
‘Father, hallowed be Your name.
Your kingdom come.
Mark,
You said:
Therefore to deny that saving faith is in itself not a gracious gift of God necessitates that it is something we do without the help of God.
Who is claiming that our faith is “without the help of God”? It isn’t me. We are required to believe, but God is the one who draws us so it is never without the help of God. When you say things like this, I wonder why you do this? Have you accepted a false view of non-Calvinism from those who wish to separate from their brothers and sisters in Christ?
This therefore is a work since it comes from our doing and not God’s.
This is illogical. You are defining faith as having nothing at all to do with us. Faith then is God’s belief in Himself that He gives to us. But God can’t believe for us and He cannot respond for us. If faith were someone else believing for you, then why can’t our faith save our brother?
I am defining faith as something that we do in response to God’s immense amount of work in our lives. It is a response that we give to God. It is demanded of us and only our own personal response is valid. God simply cannot believe for us.
You cannot say that the faith that saves us is not a gift of God, unless you can prove biblically how this is not a work of man to earn salvation.
Mark, we already defined saving faith as not a work. I don’t need to prove it isn’t a work because we have already both agreed that saving faith is not a work.
If we say that it is our own faith (with no gift from God) then we have every reason to boast since we have chosen wisely when others have not. This I reject.
This is where you are wrong because it is not “saving faith” that is the cause for boasting. It is “salvation” that could be a cause for boasting if one worked for it. But since we already defined saving faith as not a work and since there is nothing that one can do to earn salvation, your comments are illogical.
One interesting note here is that Calvinsts often say that their faith in God’s gift of faith causes them alone to not have pride. Yet Calvinists regularly struggle with pride since their boast is that God picked them while rejecting others. In fact John Piper a famous Calvinist here in North America is taking 8 months off of ministry because of pride issues that have hurt his wife and others in ministry. My son met him last year and could see the pride in him while people were fawning over him. My son asked him about this and Piper poked his finger in my son’s chest. No pride there? Highly unlikely.
But for me knowing that God has drawn me to Jesus, He has paid the price that I could not even lift a finger to pay and that nothing I could do could earn salvation, leaves me nothing to have pride over. I am a sinner saved by God’s grace alone through God’s requirement that I believe Him. I have done that because God has proven Himself faithful. I can’t help by believe because His character is so awesome, His love so amazing and His grace so freely given that I have believed his word and fallen in love with Him because of who He is, not because of who I am of what I have done. That is Sovereign grace.
I have done nothing greater than anybody- God has simply shown me grace in giving me his gift of salvation and faith. I have nothing to boast in of myself, I can only boast in God’s mercy.
But for Calvinists you can boast that God loves you and doesn’t love a lot of others – at least not with saving love. I can’t say that for God was willing to have saving love for all because He sent Jesus to die for all. You can look around and say that in a crowd of unbelievers that God loved me more than He loved them. I am special to Him for whatever reason. While you may not know the reason why He chose you, the fact that He chose you and you are one of the elite elect chose out of all humanity makes you have lots to boast amongst those that God doesn’t love. Don’t you see how that could cause many like Piper to be prideful?
Now also since repentance is required for salvation and as 2 Tim 3 says even that is a gift of God, no-one can repent nor have faith unless God grants it to them otherwise they have room to boast of their own salvation.
The Bible says that repentance is “granted” and God grants repentance to anyone who will fear Him. It is always conditional and it is always dependent on the faithfulness of God to make sure that no one who fears God is left without salvation.
Please explain how you can have faith (which is not a gift from God) and it not be a work. If it does not stem from God then it is something we do correct?
I can have faith because God has shown Himself to me and revealed enough about Himself that I believe Him. It is God’s work to reveal Himself and God’s work to draw me and God’s work to save me. My faith is not a work because saving faith is never a work. It is the very opposite of works.
Mark, why have you been deceived to believe that saving faith is a work in some people when the Scriptures always set faith in opposition to works? Somebody has twisted your head around so that you do not even seen how you flip flop back and forth. “saving faith is a work” and “no, saving faith is not a work”. How could anyone accept Calvinism with this kind of inconsistency and illogical thinking?
Mark,
You said:
“Where does the Bible say that Cornelius was born again before he heard the gospel?”
You can’t keep copping out and saying everything is human tradition Cheryl, it’s hardly convincing. Now about Cornelius, did God do something before he accepted the message of salvation from Peter? Did he have a vision, did he see an angel of God? Did he not experience all this before he heard the gospel. Yes he did. This is God working before the message of Jesus was even preached. This is the issue.
No it isn’t the issue. We agree that for a person to come to faith in Christ, God has to work in their life. But where we don’t agree is that you say that the miracle of the new birth happens before one comes to faith in Christ. I asked you to show this miracle of the new birth that happened to Cornelius before he heard the gospel message. Seeing an angel of God hardly qualifies. The miracle of the new birth is the seed of God born in us. Where is that in the text? Please show it to me?
Does God intervene in people’s lives before they hear the message so that they may believe. According to Acts 10 yes, aswell as the rest of the New Testament. Although the words ‘born again’ are not used here by Luke does not mean that God did not work in Cornelius before he accepted the message.
Again, you are confusing God’s work in drawing a person with the experience of the new birth. Of course the text doesn’t say that Cornelius was born again before he heard the message because the new birth cannot happen before a person believes.
The kingdom of God is twofold Cheryl. It came in Jesus, but it is still yet to come until the final consummation. This is the now/not yet tension. I would have thought you would have learnt that in your studies.
My friend, you are mistaken. The kingdom is not twofold. The kingdom will come in “that day” of the Lord. Rather the king came, not the kingdom. Jesus is very clear about that. He told Pilate that he is king, but he also said that his kingdom was not of this world. No two fold kingdom at all. Just a coming kingdom and a present reigning King.
So we enter the kingdom of God when we are saved into Jesus name, but we are still waiting to enter it entirely when we go to eternity.
We enter the kingdom of God only through Jesus. Paul makes this clear. We are “in” Christ. We are buried with him in his death and made alive with Him. And we are “seated” in the heavenlies with him. So our are only in the kingdom now because the King is in heaven and we are His body. But physically on this earth, we have yet to enter the kingdom. It is consistently a future event.
Ephesians 2:6 (NASB)
6 and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,
We are indeed in the heavenly kingdom now — spiritually because our “head” is there and we are indeed “in” Him.
You have not dealt with John 3 at all. John 3 is clear that we are to be born again BEFORE we see or enter the kingdom of heaven. How can this be if it is after salvation?
I have consistently dealt with this passage showing that entering into the kingdom is future. But let me add one thing. If God had wanted this passage to say that we must be born again before we can be given the gift of faith and before we can be saved, He could easily have said that. He would not have had to mention a word about heaven for our salvation starts here.
John 3:3 Hypothetical Calvinist edition
3 Jesus answered and said to him, “Truly, truly, I say to you (Nicodemus, an regenerate man), unless one (including you Nicodemus) is miraculously born again first while they are still in the state of being an unregenerate reprobate man, he cannot be given the gift of faith and be saved.”
But here is a big problem for you, according to your belief, being born again is not equal to being saved. So when the person is “born again” they are still unregenerate and unsaved. The next thing that happens is that God gifts this unrepentant person who is still not regenerated with the gift of faith. That means that God gives His gift of faith to an unbeliever and a reprobate man. They don’t have to believe God. They don’t even have to love God and they won’t because they are not regenerated through salvation. They are merely “born again”. So God puts His seed into this unbeliever and then He puts a gift of faith into the unbeliever and miraculously they are saved by God’s believing for them and God repenting for them???
Okay that is all I could get to today. Not sure when I can finish. I have lots of other work to get to. And it is tax season. Oh joy!
Cheryl,
The kingdom of God/Heaven is the same thing, but just expressed differently, so although the term ‘heaven’ is used it is still the kingdom of God. And please don’t give the impression that I don’t believe the kingdom is not future. I have said it is, but it has also begun in Jesus first visit to earth. That is why in Jesus parables he talks about things growing, the mustard see growing into a tree. This has begun already has it not? Or are all Jesus parables only references on heaven? When John the Baptist said that the kingdom of heaven is at hand, what did he mean in your view? Obviously you don’t believe he was talking about Jesus. Here is another example
Mar 1:15 and saying, “The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent and believe in the gospel.”
And another
Mar 4:26 And he said, “The kingdom of God is as if a man should scatter seed on the ground.
Notice it doesn’t say ‘will’ be like. This is present tense. Again…
Mar 4:30 And he said, “With what can we compare the kingdom of God, or what parable shall we use for it?
If the kingdom is ONLY future, it doesn’t make sense. Jesus is describing it then and there to his hearers. What about this one
Mar 9:1 And he said to them, “Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power.”
This doesn’t make sense if the kingdom hasn’t begun yet. There must be people out there 2000years old hey?
Col 1:13 He has delivered us from the domain of darkness and transferred us to the kingdom of his beloved Son,
Col 1:14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
We are in God’s kingdom when we are justified. It has already begun, although we wait for it’s completion.
You see Cheryl, the kingdom like I have said has begun, but not yet complete- the now/not yet tension. I understand your insistance to say it is future because you need to see it that way to understand John 3 and regeneration.
‘In fact the terms “unregenerate” and “born-again” are opposites. They cannot exist together.”
I agree. An ungenerate person is one who is dead in sin. A regenerate person is one who has been born again. Your still looking at born again as only salvation, and this is where I think you are wrong.
“I wonder why you didn’t quote these verses? Is it because they are so obvious about a future judgment and a future entering into the kingdom that they cannot even be twisted to be about the here and the now?”
Wow, that’s a bit harsh isn’t it. You call me a brother aswell but say I twist the scriptures. Don’t criticise me when you do the same thing. NB. I have said all along that the kingdom is also future-please read me correctly. I disagree that it is ONLY future and was not inaugurated when Christ came.
“In fact everything about the “kingdom of heaven” is so obviously in the future and not in operation on the earth.”
I agree that the kingdom is heavenly not on earth. Maybe that is why you misunderstand me. If you think I am saying God’s kingdom is the earth, this is not what I believe. Let me try to say it plainly. God’s kingdom was inaugurated when Christ came, and will be fulfilled at his second coming. Everything in the Bible points to Christ, so when he came, God’s kingdom began. God conquered over sin and death and Satan then- his kingdom began, BUT it is still yet to be completely fulfilled. We live in the period beween the inauguration and the complete fulfilment.
“Now Mark, I have carefully gone through this piece by piece to show that the action of God which is the verb salvation is the “gift”. The rest only explains how the action is gifted to us “by grace” and “through faith”.
Cheryl, I disagree with your exegesis. Logically we must say then that ‘grace’ is not even a gift then. Is this what you believe? Do you believe that God does not bestow a gift of grace upon us. Is it just an abstract idea of God’s? Col 2:13 also talks about us being dead in our sins and uncircumcised sinful nature? If we are by nature because of our sinful nature passed down from Adam, dead in sin, how on earth can we possibly have the ability to have faith in God. It simply doesn’t make sense. We needed God to do something to make us not-dead. Why does Paul in 2 Thess thank God that their faith is growing if it is not God’s work?
2Th 1:3 We ought always to give thanks to God for you, brothers, as is right, because your faith is growing abundantly, and the love of every one of you for one another is increasing.
Is it God who increases our faith or is it us? Answer that for me at least.
“Mark, you must be very busy, because you are not taking the time to carefully read what I have written. I didn’t say that the faith outlined in Ephesians 2 is not for every believer. Instead it is 1 Cor. 12:9 where the faith listed as a gift is not given to every believer.”
I’m not so sure you were so clear about that one. Look what you wrote…”Salvation is the gift of God and the vehicle is by grace through faith. The faith that is listed as God’s gift is not given to all of the saved just as not all have the same gifts.”
You were clearly talking about Eph 2:8 in your first sentence, so why should I have assumed you switched in your second sentence. So what you are now saying is that the faith in Eph 2:8 is different to the gift of faith in 1 Cor 12. Maybe it was you who were not so clear, rather than me misreading you? Fair comment?
“Who is claiming that our faith is “without the help of God”? It isn’t me. We are required to believe, but God is the one who draws us so it is never without the help of God. When you say things like this, I wonder why you do this? Have you accepted a false view of non-Calvinism from those who wish to separate from their brothers and sisters in Christ?”
Ok I think I am getting closer to understanding your view…maybe! So God ‘draws’ everybody (however that works) and this is how God helps? But when the decision needs to be made then it is solely up to the person…correct? God does not help that person actually believe, he just draws them in however you understand that.
No I don’t know anyone who wants to separate Calvinists from non-calvinists. I don’t think that is anyone’s intention in our churches. I simply want to know the truth. I want to know that if the act of saving faith is not something God gives to us, how can we say that we are therefore not adding something of our own to salvation? I’m yet to here a convincing statement on it. I can’t see how God draws every single person to himself when clearly not everyone knows about Christianity. I can’t see how as sinful people with a dead corrupt nature we can be expect people to accept Christ unless he opens their eyes to the message.
“This is illogical. You are defining faith as having nothing at all to do with us.”
No, not at all, but I think we are at least getting to the heart of the matter- how free-choice and God’s sovereignty work together. Faith is our action, it has to be since people who don’t believe are condemned. However faith is also something God grants to us aswell. Same as repentance in 2 Tim 2. God requires us to repent yet he is the very one who grants it. Look here is a clear example from Scripture that shows what I mean. Think about Joseph- who was responsible for him being sold into slavery in Egypt…his brothers clearly. Yet what does Joseph say.
Gen 45:8 So it was not you who sent me here, but God. He has made me a father to Pharaoh, and lord of all his house and ruler over all the land of Egypt.
This is the tension in the Bible. We are responsible for our actions, yet at the same time God is at work aswell. It is wrong to go one way or the other. You can’t deny that God is involved in our saving faith, yet you can’t deny that we are the ones who make the decision. This is the tension. We believe because it is very much our decision to believe, yet we believe because it is very much God’s action to make us believe. This is where people stumble because they can’t handle it. But like I pointed out with Romans 9- it is not human will or exertion, but’s God’s mercy which saves us.
“This is where you are wrong because it is not “saving faith” that is the cause for boasting. It is “salvation” that could be a cause for boasting if one worked for it. But since we already defined saving faith as not a work and since there is nothing that one can do to earn salvation, your comments are illogical.”
I don’t think you can separate all these things all the time Cheryl. You seem to want to completely separate salvation from faith all the time. Eph 2:8-9 I don’t think allows for that. Sure we can boast if we work for our salvation, but surely there is room for boasting if I believe and you don’t, if faith isn’t a gift. There is heaps of room for boasting. The person who chose, made a better decision, they were wiser, understood more etc etc. This I reject. The verses do not lend themselves to such seperation like you have done. Salvation, grace, faith are all gifts, so that we may never boast of anything of ourselves.
I think you had a cheap shot a Piper there Cheryl. Any of us are vulnerable to pride not just Calvinists. I’m sure if you or I are ever in a position like Piper or anyone like that we would struggle. It is a good thing that Piper has realised this, he takes sin seriously and I praise God for that. Being a Calvinist does not negate nor increase one’s possibility of being proud- this is something we all struggle with. Maybe it is something even both of us should look at within ourselves.
But I reject that reformed theology increases people’s pride. That is just a cheap shot. It is illogical. If I believe that God’s elect are purely chosen by God’s choice and mercy (Rom 9) how can I boast- it has nothing to do with me. If however I believe that I am God’s elect because he foreknew what I would choose then I do have room to boast. Being God’s elect was dependent on something I did, something I chose not purely on the mercy and grace of God. I know which one I’d rather be on.
“I have done that because God has proven Himself faithful.”
So you chose God because he was faithful? Did you know he was faithful when you were converted or is that something you grew to understand? I sure didn’t know God was this great faithful God when I was converted. What if you wake up tomorrow and no longer believe God is faithful? What is stopping this from happening? Your faith or God’s faithfulness to you? There is too much reliance on myself in your view Cheryl for me to accept. Doesn’t Jesus say even if he raised a dead person people wouldn’t believe. What constitutes enough evidence to show God is faithful?
“But for Calvinists you can boast that God loves you and doesn’t love a lot of others – at least not with saving love. I can’t say that for God was willing to have saving love for all because He sent Jesus to die for all. You can look around and say that in a crowd of unbelievers that God loved me more than He loved them. I am special to Him for whatever reason. While you may not know the reason why He chose you, the fact that He chose you and you are one of the elite elect chose out of all humanity makes you have lots to boast amongst those that God doesn’t love. Don’t you see how that could cause many like Piper to be prideful?”
I don’t believe that God loves me more than others- reformed theology doesn’t believe that. We believe the Bible. God loves the world (3:16), he doesn’t take pleasure in the death of the wicked (Eze 18). But God also chose to save some and not others according to his pleasure and his will. It has nothing to do with us or that he loves us more. You are misrepresenting reformed theology saying those sorts of things. Perhaps you should read Calvin! Please don’t also describe Calvinists as some sort of ‘elite’- this is unhelpful. If anything Calvinists affirm the total depravity of ALL people. We all deserve hell and punishment for our sin. I would never boast about being God’s elect because I know I have no place for doing that, I never deserved to be saved in the first place.
- “The Bible says that repentance is “granted” and God grants repentance to anyone who will fear Him. It is always conditional and it is always dependent on the faithfulness of God to make sure that no one who fears God is left without salvation.”
This is interesting since you didn’t even deal with the verse I quoted. Let’s look at it
2Ti 2:24 And the Lord’s servant must not be quarrelsome but kind to everyone, able to teach, patiently enduring evil,
2Ti 2:25 correcting his opponents with gentleness. God may perhaps grant them repentance leading to a knowledge of the truth,
2Ti 2:26 and they may come to their senses and escape from the snare of the devil, after being captured by him to do his will.
I can’t see here that repentance is conditional to those who fear God. In fact isn’t Paul urging Timothy to pray for these men who are described as ‘opponents’ (not God fearers) so that they may come to a knowledge of the ‘truth’. Doesn’t Paul also describe them as captured by the devil and doing the devils will. These people that Pual says to ask God to grant repentance, definitely do not sound like they fear God.
“Mark, why have you been deceived to believe that saving faith is a work in some people when the Scriptures always set faith in opposition to works? Somebody has twisted your head around so that you do not even seen how you flip flop back and forth. “saving faith is a work” and “no, saving faith is not a work”. How could anyone accept Calvinism with this kind of inconsistency and illogical thinking?
You obviously have not understood me at all. Let’s try again. Saving faith is not a work ONLY because it is a gift of God. Once you remove the fact that it is a gift, it no longer is something from God, it is something from man therefore it becomes a work. I am saying the former, you the latter. Faith is opposed to works because it comes from God not man. IF it does not come from God it is from man. Your view( although you say you believe grace alone through faith alone) have made the ‘faith’ part into a man’s work because you deny it is something that God gives us. Do you see the difference. I have stated this several times now. Yes faith is a response, but even a response is a work (because it is something we do) UNLESS it is a gift of God. You are struggling to accept Calvinism because you don’t understand it. That’s why I keep recommending you read Calvin, not me, not any other ‘Calvinists’. Then see if what Calvin saids squares with the Bible.
“Frankly because of the teaching, it is absolutely impossible for anyone to say for sure if they are really one of the elect according to Calvinist doctrine. The only way that they will ever know for sure is if they persevere to the end. So until the day that they die or until the day that Christ comes, they can never really know for sure.”
Mark,
You said:
The difference between us is you think people can accept the message of salvation while dead in sin. You base this on the fact that Jesus told the pharisee’s that they did ‘good’ things.
No. I believe that evil people can do “good” because Jesus said so. I believe that unregenerate people can believe the gospel because God commanded them to believe and then Jesus reasoned with one who was unregenerate. Jesus didn’t say to Nicodemus that you must be “resurrected” to see the kingdom of heaven. He said that you must be “born again”. Jesus was giving him reason to believe. Jesus did not say that He had just resurrected him and had just given him a clean heart so that he could believe. That is foreign to the text.
Isaiah 1:18 (NASB)
“Let Us Reason”
18 “Come now, and let us reason together,”
Says the LORD,
“Though your sins are as scarlet,
They will be as white as snow;
Though they are red like crimson,
They will be like wool.
God always reasons with unbelievers. But this would be completely useless if they had to be resurrected before they could hear.
God reasoned with Nicodemus and He reasons with us. He gives us a reason to believe and when we do believe He cleanses our heart. But for the Calvinist way of thinking an unregenerate person cannot be reasoned with because they are unreachable because “dead” means they cannot seek for God and they cannot hear God.
I do not think people can accept the message while dead in sins.
But the Scripture doesn’t say this and we see God both in the OT and Jesus in the NT reasoning with the unregenerate. This would make God very unwise and unreasonable if unregenerate people cannot hear and accept the message. I want to rely on what the Scripture actually says not what I think the process should be. I want to give God the glory for working hard to reach the unregenerate.
They need the work of the Spirit to open their eyes to the message.
Yes, indeed, this is what I have been saying all along. But they do not need to be born again before they can respond and see.
Although the pharisee’s did ‘good’ things that has nothing to do with salvation. Any ‘good’ in this world is the common grace of God poured out on believers and non-believers, but this does not mean that they can seek or find God while still dead in sin.
I didn’t say that the good things would save them. But you said that unbelievers couldn’t do any good. I showed you how this is not true in the Scriptures.
Common grace is indeed given to all. And that common grace is all that is needed for God to allow an unregenerate person to seek Him. In fact only the unregenerate can “seek” God. Once a person is regenerate they have “found” God and they are in His family. The seekers are always the unregenerate.
From what i can tell you believe unregenrate man has the ability to seek God. I do not. I believe only regenerate man has the ability to seek God.
Another problem that you have is that only the unregenerate are told to seek for God. The regenerate are told to live by the Spirit. They are not told to seek God because He is already within them. Don’t you see that? Only one who is not filled with God’s Spirit will need to “seek” Him. How can the regenerate be “seekers” when they are God’s family?
This seems to be our difference. When regeneration occurs! (and perhaps what regeneration means)
Yes, indeed this is one of the differences between Calvinists and non-Calvinists. I just don’t understand how you can believe that God causes one to be “born again” and put His seed within them and they are given a new heart that has been cleansed from sin and yet they are not saved. I have never seen God put His seed into a person without that person being a child of God. And no child of God is an unsaved person. Your inability to see that totally confounds me. I didn’t need a man’s book to show that to me. The Holy Scriptures speak volumes about salvation.
Cheryl, i would love to talk more with you about Job and other OT saints. I think that is a very important point. Can you answer a few brief questions relating to Job- why was he righteous? Or what do you believe made God call him righteous? Was it because he feared God?
I will answer your question from the Scriptures for they alone have the answers.
Proverbs 1:28–30 (NASB)
28 “Then they will call on me, but I will not answer;
They will seek me diligently but they will not find me,
29 Because they hated knowledge
And did not choose the fear of the LORD.
30 “They would not accept my counsel,
They spurned all my reproof.
Job was a person who did not hate knowledge. He accepted God’s counsel and did not spurn God’s reproof. He chose the fear of the LORD because of the knowledge that God gave.
Psalm 25:12 (NASB)
12 Who is the man who fears the LORD?
He will instruct him in the way he should choose.
When we respond to God with the fear of the Lord, He promises to instruct us in the way that we should choose. We are given both the opportunity and the requirement to choose God’s way.
Job 1:1 (NASB)
Job’s Character and Wealth
1 There was a man in the land of Uz whose name was Job; and that man was blameless, upright, fearing God and turning away from evil.Job 1:8 (NASB)
8 The LORD said to Satan, “Have you considered My servant Job? For there is no one like him on the earth, a blameless and upright man, fearing God and turning away from evil.”
Job chose to fear God because it was a choice given him. He feared God and turned away from evil as God gave Him instructions on how he should live.
Are you saying that God bringing people to salvation or the new covenant is dependent upon them first fearing Him?
I am saying that according to the passage of John 6 that we were discussing the ones that were brought to Jesus, those ones, were those who feared God and had been taught by Him.
John 6:45 (NASB)
45 “It is written in the prophets, ‘AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.
1 Thessalonians 4:9 (NASB95)
9 Now as to the love of the brethren, you have no need for anyone to write to you, for you yourselves are taught by God to love one another;
All who feared God and chose to hear and learn from the Father were all brought to Jesus and thousands of them got saved in one day.
Acts 2:5 (NASB)
5 Now there were Jews living in Jerusalem, devout men from every nation under heaven.
These devout people were the God-fearers.
John 9:31 (NASB)
31 “We know that God does not hear sinners; but if anyone is God-fearing and does His will, He hears him.Acts 10:2 (NASB)
2 a devout man and one who feared God with all his household, and gave many alms to the Jewish people and prayed to God continually.Acts 17:4 (NASB)
4 And some of them were persuaded and joined Paul and Silas, along with a large number of the God-fearing Greeks and a number of the leading women.
The ones who feared God were open to hearing His word.
Acts 2:37–38 (NASB)
37 Now when they heard this, they were pierced to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, “Brethren, what shall we do?”
38 Peter said to them, “Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.Acts 2:41 (NASB)
41 So then, those who had received his word were baptized; and that day there were added about three thousand souls.
These ones who were lead to Christ were already God-fearing people and they readily accepted and heard the Word.
Mark,
You said:
If we are dead we need to be made alive and only God can do that.
If we are “dead” then we need a resurrection not a rebirth. Those who are sick need to have a new heart that is cleansed, not resurrected.
Mark,
You said:
IF we were just sick, then sure we might have the ability to do it ourselves.
Jesus said that the sick need a physician. They cannot heal themselves.
Mark,
You said:
Cheryl, this is exactly you, because you think it is unfair that God’s ordains all things as you have said before. My guess though is that you have re-interpreted Romans 9 aswell to make it say something it isn’t.
Wrong, wrong, wrong, if God has ordained me to be a non-Calvinist I don’t think it is unfair at all. I am happy and content and I belong to God. Why would I call God unfair to me?
We are told in the bible to make disciples of all nations- to tell all about Jesus. When people reject this they are condemned.
No they are not. They are condemned because God chose them for destruction without any conditions. ‘Apparently He made them to go to hell so it isn’t their rejection of the gospel that sends them there.
We would all be condemned if God by His Spirit did not open our eyes and soften our hearts. By preaching, God’s elect are saved by belief and those who reject the message are condemned.
Actually that isn’t true either. It is according to the Calvinist message that we learn that the elect are that way unconditionally. You can’t now say that their salvation depends on a condition. They were picked unconditionally, remember?
Surely you believe that people are either destined to believe or not, unless of course you hold to some kind of open theology. Even if you are an Arminiam you believe this, because Arminians at least believe in God’s foreknowledge.
Being “destined to believe” is not about God’s foreknowledge. It is about predestination by God’s unconditional election so no I do not believe that people are unconditionally destined to believe.
You said:
Abraham was chosen purely by God’s grace. Moses was chosen purely by God’s grace. So was Isaac, so was Jacob. So was Paul since he was persecuting Christians until God changed him. IT sure wasn’t Paul’s concern for seeking Jesus.
Where does the Bible say that Abraham was chosen purely by God’s grace?
Romans 4:3 (NASB)
3 For what does the Scripture say? “ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS CREDITED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.”
It was Abraham’s belief of God that was credited with righteousness. The Bible never says that Abraham’s salvation was only by grace without faith. It was never unconditional.
Moses, Isaac and Jacob were not chosen for salvation. They were chosen for a task. Show me one verse that says that God chose them for salvation unconditionally without faith.
Maybe you can clarify if you at all believe that people are predestined to salvation? Oh I almost forget, it seems Paul thought the Ephesians were predestined to salvation.
I believe in predestination because the Scriptures teach it. But the Scriptures never teach a predestination to salvation of the wicked without the condition of faith. There is a predestination to earthly work but never a predestination to salvation without condition.
Look at John the Baptist. He was predestined to become the fore runner of Christ yet he was not predestined to salvation. He expressed doubt that Jesus was the Messiah.
Luke 7:19 (NASB)
19 Summoning two of his disciples, John sent them to the Lord, saying, “Are You the Expected One, or do we look for someone else?”
You answered my question this way:
- “Do you really? Do you believe that God can change any person if that person is a reprobate that was chosen from eternity past to be lost?
Yes I do believ God can change any unregenerate person according to his will and purpose as Paul’s says. IF it is not according to God’s will, then no it will not happen. Everything happens according only to God’s will and mercy not our own as Romans 9 states.
Did you read my question? I asked if God can change a person who has been predestined from eternity past to be lost. Are you saying that God predestines someone unconditionally be lost and then later he conditionally changes that so that they can no longer be lost even when He had decreed them to be lost? That seems awfully weird. Are you sure that you believe that God can contradict Himself?
Ok I see. So you only ask God to ‘create events’ that will bring these people into a certain position. So you ask God for an opportunity to say something, but you don’t actually ask God to open your friends eyes right?
Sure I ask for God to open my friend’s eyes. Remember that the Bible doesn’t call this being “born again”. It is an opening of the eyes so that they can see their condition but it is not bring a dead person to life as a “born again” person. So yes, I regularly pray this way and I am expecting that God will answer yes, because it is His will to save. Unfortunately many whose eyes have been opened by God will refuse to believe by the act of their will. They reject Him with their eyes wide open to the truth.
Final point, I have said and shown you from the bible why I believe God loves all people. Please don’t insistently keep saying God loves some more than others. You are hardly being fair to people who disagree with you. Don’t distort people’s views who disagree with you.
If you follow Calvinism, I know what you believe about love. You believe that God loves all, but He has no saving love for those whom He has predestined to be lost. So while I can preach the gospel and tell all that God loves them and desires that they would be saved, you would not be able to preach that and assure them that Jesus died for their sins. If you actually believed that God loves all in a saving way, you would not be a Calvinist, so I don’t know how you can say I misrepresented you. Point blank – do you believe that God loves all with a saving love?
Mark,
You said:
No issue with John 6 and surrounds, but please don’t compare me to a JW.
I am not comparing you to a JW. You have to understand one thing – my ministry since 1988 has been caring for JW’s and ex-JW’s and bringing them to the Lord. It is the experience that I live, so if I share the way I do things with the JW’s because the practice is an important one that brings to light the complete context, it is not because I see you as a JW. It is explaining why I do what I do in the context of my life work. You are even lucky that I can speak to you without talking about the JW’s with every second sentence.
When I was first called to this ministry I had dreams of witnessing to the JW’s for 18 months straight. And that is every single night! And every night I would remember my dreams even sometimes waking up in the middle of a dream. In my dreams I would be chasing the JW’s down the street trying to share Jesus with them. Those were amazing dreams back then because I was SO shy, I could hardly look a person in the eyes.
Even when the dreams finally stopped, my passion for the JW’s did not stop and I had to share with everyone, whether they wanted to hear or not, the joys of sharing Jesus with the JW’s. I am finally able to move on to other subjects, but I still see the reason why I do things as touching the ministry to JW’s. It isn’t meant to offend anyone. It is just the love for these people that comes out especially when I explain why I do certain things. Does this make sense to you?
I have seen you over and over again proof text aswell- it’s just inevitable in this sort of dialogue on theologies. The issue is whether a proof text contradicts a clear teaching on scripture- that’s where it is dangerous.
Sorry, my friend, but I don’t do that. You see “proof texting” is not finding a text that appears to contradict another passage, but it is taking one particular text outside of its context so that it is in contradiction to the passage where it resides. So that if one gives a meaning for a verse that is refuted by the context of the passage that the verse resides in, that is a “proof text”. That is why I push for the context, not just one verse. Greg Koukl an apologist has a teaching on this called “Never read a Bible verse”. He says that one must read the entire passage that the verse is in and if we did that instead of taking a verse outside of its context, much of the confusion would disappear.
I’ll leave you to introduce the context if you like with John 6. You never know we might actually agree on something- let’s hope hey!
Yup, I’m sure we can work on agreeing on several important things. I will try to get to that tomorrow.
By the way, i would also like to apologise if i have offended you or others in any of my comments in the past. PLeaer continue to rebuke me if you feel like i overstep the mark. After all, we should all be striving to holiness and sanctification and helping each other to do that.
What a great remark! I accept your apology and I appreciate the spirit with which you brought this up. Thanks! Hopefully any others who may have been offended will understand your heart a little bit better as we all strive to know and understand the Lord Jesus better so that we can be molded into His image.
Bedtime for me. It is only 11 pm but the late nights have taken their toll. I’ll try to catch up some more as I am able tomorrow. I’ll answer the more recent comments first before I start John 6. Then maybe we could just go through that passage and leave aside the unanswered comments/questions until we have finished the passage. Is that a reasonable plan?
G’Night 😉
You are even lucky that I can speak to you without talking about the JW’s with every second sentence.
lol
Mark,
You said:
I agree with you that context is important, but the question remains- how far do you take it? To me the context is the whole Bible. Does the verse or the passage contradict the rest of biblical teaching.
A verse cannot contradict another verse elsewhere in the Scriptures, however the context can’t be the whole Bible as the Bible is not one book. It was written over a period of thousands of years and with many human authors. The context then has to be limited by the book it was written in at the most. Usually the complete chapter would be the immediate context but the context can spill over to the surrounding chapters since chapter division is not inspired. That should be sufficient but there are times when the entire book needs to be the context. I do agree with you that one passage will not contradict another passage in the Scripture, but defining the entire Bible as the “context” is overstating the definition of context.
context: discourse that surrounds a language unit and helps to determine its interpretation
the parts of a written or spoken statement that precede or follow a specific word or passage, usually influencing its meaning or effect: You have misinterpreted my remark because you took it out of context.
You said:
None the less i look forward to engaging with John 6- it’s a great chapter.
Me too!!
I have to disagree that you don’t proof text. For example you have often cited Hosea 6:7 without ever relating to it’s context in the book of Hosea.
Again, you seem to clearly misunderstand what proof texting is. Here is a definition:
the use of individual scripture texts to produce apparent support for a doctrinal position without adequate regard for the contexts of the individual texts which may indicate differences and nuances.
To charge me with “proof texting” you would have to show that my exegesis of the verse is opposed by the text surrounding the verse. In my explanation of Hosea 6:7 I have not claimed that it said anything that can be refuted by the verses surrounding the text. This is very important to understand, for if you cannot understand what is being claimed and you do not understand what qualifies as a “proof text” that is contrary to the surrounding text, then how can we even communicate?
You have just used it as a ‘proof’ text to support your notion of only Adam being in rebellion and not Eve.
Hold the bus on this one, buddy. I have not used Hosea 6:7 to prove that Eve was not in rebellion. Eve is not even mentioned in the passage. I have used Hosea 6:7 to prove that Adam was in rebellion. I have used other passages to prove that Eve was not in rebellion. Therefore there can be no charge of “proof texting” unless you can prove from the Hosea passage that Adam’s rebellion is not found in Hosea 6:7. Is this what you are claiming?
In fact even in this post you quote stand alone verse not addressing the context in which they lay.
Oh really? Where is your proof? It is not illegal to quote a stand alone verse. It is only illegal if what one quotes a verse to say something when the passage refutes the application of the verse.
So let me say again- we all proof text.
Well, my friend, I would hope not. Are you saying that you take a verse out of its context by applying a meaning to the verse that is contrary to the meaning of the passage? Is you do, why do you do that? Is that the way that God wants His Scripture used? Proof texting is bad. Again – quoting a single verse that is quoted accurately and interpreted accurately from the passage is not bad. Quoting a single verse is only bad when one is misusing the quote.
Gazza,
You said:
Thanks for your response to my last post #146. Unfortunatly I was not clear enough – ever a danger with analogies. The roast dinner/ carcus was not meant to represent any individual sin but rather choosing between everlasting life (the roast) or death (the carcus). It was meant simply to highlight the fact that even our choice to follow Christ in faith is one that we are unable to make until He opens our eyes through changing our nature. Once He has done this there is no other choice for us to make, we still have free will to reject Christ and choose the carcus but we no longer desire to do so…
While I do understand that Calvinism teaches that one cannot answer the call of God to choose unless God first resurrects them to life and gives them a new nature, the question is whether this is Biblical or not. Yes, analogies can fail to represent what we believe, and this is why I try hard to stick to Scripture as much as possible. I believe that if we do not have clear Scripture but only analogies, then it makes me wonder why Scripture is not clear.
The Bible is clear that there are people that God chooses for leadership and for certain tasks and/or privileges.
Numbers 17:5 (NASB)
5 “It will come about that the rod of the man whom I choose will sprout. Thus I will lessen from upon Myself the grumblings of the sons of Israel, who are grumbling against you.”
In Numbers 17:5 God clearly states that the leader of the people is one that He Himself has chosen. So is it clear in the OT that God must resurrect a man to life before he can choose life?
Deuteronomy 30:19 (NASB)
19 “I call heaven and earth to witness against you today, that I have set before you life and death, the blessing and the curse. So choose life in order that you may live, you and your descendants,
In Deut 30:19 God clearly “sets before” Israel life and death, the blessing and the curse and He tells them to “choose” life. If they couldn’t choose life without being resurrected to life first, then God made a serious error in actually setting before them both life and death. It would seem rather that God is mocking them because they did not have a choice.
Also in Jeremiah 8:3-5 God shows that there is a choice, but that the “evil family” has chosen death, not that God has chosen for them that they have no power to fail to chose or fail to chose the other option.
Jeremiah 8:3–5 (NASB)
3 “And death will be chosen rather than life by all the remnant that remains of this evil family, that remains in all the places to which I have driven them,” declares the LORD of hosts.
4 “You shall say to them, ‘Thus says the LORD,
“Do men fall and not get up again?
Does one turn away and not repent?
5 “Why then has this people, Jerusalem,
Turned away in continual apostasy?
They hold fast to deceit,
They refuse to return.
When I test the teaching that one must be resurrected to life before one can choose to seek God, this teaching just isn’t found in the Scriptures. It is well articulated by Calvinists, but a good story that is not substantiated by the Word is just a good story.
You said:
In Post 185 you say
No they are not. They are condemned because God chose them for destruction without any conditions. ‘Apparently He made them to go to hell so it isn’t their rejection of the gospel that sends them there.This is exactly the thinking I was trying to anticipate with my analogy. The choice of life is there right beside the choice of death but they reject it because of their sin nature.
But that is not what I was saying. I wasn’t saying that they chose destruction because of their sin nature. I said that the choice was made for them by God. If they were chosen unconditionally to go to hell, then their rejection of the gospel isn’t want sends them to hell. They go there because God pre-determined that they were one of the ones who would be created to go there. If they were created to go to hell unconditionally then it cannot also be said that they go to hell because of ….. (whatever reason) for God alone decides their fate without their own actions.
When someone tells them the baked dinner is better they regect them because of their sin nature(in our sin nature we do believe the carcus to be better).
Gazza, here you are dealing with a symptom instead of the direct reason why someone rejects good food. The rejection is because they were ordained to go to hell, if Calvinism is correct. The problem is that this teaching makes the multitude of passages about our own choice to fear God or not to fear God is nothing more than a sham and an intentional fraud for the cover of God’s pleading with the wicked to repent and turn to him, covers over the reality that He desires that they do not turn and repent for He has preplanned their journey to hell.
Some Calvinists will take these inconsistencies and say that they are a “mystery” and God alone knows why His call for repentance can both be a true call and yet a determined-in-advance and unconditional rejection of the reprobate. How God can long for the lost to come to Him and at the same time not long for them to come to Him because they have been unconditionally determined to be rejected is a huge problem for Calvinism and why so many reject this theory for the solid truth of Scripture that God actually longs for all of the unregenerate to turn from their wicked ways and that He does not take pleasure in the death of the wicked.
Ezekiel 18:23 (NASB)
23 “Do I have any pleasure in the death of the wicked,” declares the Lord GOD, “rather than that he should turn from his ways and live?
You said:
Certainly God did not open their eyes to show them the folly of their choice but this is at Gods discretion(indeed it is the corrupt nature of sin that they would not want God to do any such thing) – it is still a choice they have made and are accountable for it.
The problem is that there are many who did turn and repent and nowhere in the OT does it say that God resurrected them to life first before they could turn to Him.
Like I said, Calvinism has a great deal of holes in that theory and I choose to follow the consistent revelation of Scripture rather than a theory. At the same time I appreciate my brothers and sisters in Christ who are Calvinists for their love for God and their desire to live for His glory. I too have this great desire.
“It just puts us into little ‘buckets’ of pre-conceived ideas.”
Mark,
Agreed – I’m not a fan of pre-conceived ideas either.
Again, this is part of the inconsistency of Calvinism that makes me scratch my head.
lol
Man, if all people were totally depraved you couldn’t walk outside your door in the day time, let alone the night time.
You ain’t kidden!
I’d remove myself from the planet if that were the case! I’d be outte saying God beam me up!
Mark,
You said:
Now about being a child of God. I have agreed with you that we are children of God once we believe. However like I said Romans 8 and Eph 1 also talk about this being God’s choice or plan before the foundation of the world. So although we were enemies of God before believing, we were always planned to be children of God. Our union with Christ has been layed down from the beginning. Do you understand what I mean?
I understand your doctrine, but it a “theory” that has no Biblical basis. The Bible doctrine has us believing God and only believers are ever predestined to be conformed to Christ. It is God’s choice to offer salvation because only He can offer and only He can create new life. But God is not restricted so that He cannot offer salvation conditioned on faith. God has choices and He has shown us His choice in the Scriptures.
You still haven’t answered how you pray for your un christian friends- you dodged it.
I did answer that question in this thread although I didn’t answer it right away. Sometimes busyness causes me to be behind in answering questions. I don’t ever “dodge” questions. If I don’t know the answer, I just say so. I actually quite like questions. I am not saying that you “dodge” questions but you have so many questions that you haven’t answered, that if we were going to speculate on the dodger in our midst, I think you’d get a few votes. Now, I am not speculating on that. But perhaps you should have a little more patience with me too, eh?
Also please explain your idea of God’s sovereignty? Do you believe God is sovereign in that he made himself vulnerable in creating the world like many do?
I believe that God has full and complete Sovereign choice to do anything that He wants to do that is not against His nature. He can create a world where He gives man the ability to choice between several options that God sets up for man. That is God’s Sovereign choice and I am amazed whenever someone states that God cannot do certain things as if they can control and limit God. I don’t think that God can be controlled and limited by anything other than His own nature and His own choice. Do you agree?
You said “No it is not. Being born again is a miraculous work that transforms and renews and brings God’s life to a heart that was separated from God and lost in sin. It is opening of the eyes. It is a transformation.”
Now the funny thing is I agree with this. We are lost in sin, we are dead. We are totally seperated from God. Therefore how do we accept the message of salvation. It is interesting that you say it is opening of the eyes. Look what I said just before you said ‘No it is not”
Being ‘born-again’ is God opening their eyes to the message of the cross.
Sorry, I mistyped. What I meant to say that “No it is not opening of the eyes. It is a transformation.” I guess I should always reread what I have typed because sometimes the fingers are faster than the brain (or is it vice versa?)
Being born again is a completely miraculous even where a person becomes a new creature and they are born of God’s seed and born from above into God’s kingdom. It is never called having their eyes opened.
Inconsistency??? You can’t say to me I’m wrong and then in your definition say the same thing. I’m confused.
Sorry about that bloke. I missed a word in typing. I wasn’t meaning to twist around your head. Still friends?
You keep saying that being born again before faith is unscriptural yet you have not dealt with Jn 3. Perhaps we should discuss that more?
John 3:6 …that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
Being born of the Spirit is the seed of God. I have already dealt with this and you have not answered. Having the seed of God is being in the family of God. It is impossible for a person at the moment of being born again to be unsaved. The Spirit does not give birth to one who is not a child of God.
Let me get something straight. You agree that Romans 14 is saying in the context of believers that everything not done in faith is sin? Yet you disagree that unbelievers (who have no faith in Christ) are not doing everything in sin.
The context is about a believer partaking in something that is going against his/her conscience. There is nothing in that passage that would make this being about unbelievers.
Here is my opinion for what it is worth. Everything any of us does is sin unless God gives us grace. It is only be grace that unbelievers do good things.
This is a hypothesis but it isn’t going through the Scripture to see what it says. Sorry bud, but opinions will never equal to the inspired Word. Why don’t you just go through the passage carefully and figure out what the text is exactly saying?
I don’t believe God hates unbelievers.
Well it is good to know that you have not believed the teaching that God has created people that He has chosen to unconditionally hate.
More in the next comment box.
Mark,
You said:
I have agreed with you all along that we are all called to seek after God. But how can we as sinners.
God gives us all common grace to seek after God. He has promised everyone that if we seek for Him with all of our heart we will find Him. If this was impossible then it would make God a liar. The fact is that God wants all to seek Him so He enables all who will fear God and seek Him.
Again Romans 3 says none seeks after God.
But again I mentioned that Romans 3 is a quote from the OT where the context is the fool who says there is no God. Paul would not illegally use an OT quote to mean the opposite of what God inspired as Paul supported Scripture. He did not twist Scripture to his own use.
God demands that we seek him, but in our sinfulness we don’t.
There is a huge difference between we “don’t” and we “can’t”. The fact is that God enables us to do what He longs us to do and if we don’t it isn’t because we can’t. Many have repented and feared God and went on seeking Him. That is God’s empowerment. Otherwise it really makes God out to be one who really doesn’t mean what He says.
Joh 6:65 And he said,…
We will get to this shortly as we will be going through John 6 so I will leave it for now.
Matt 13:11-17 is very similar to John 6 so I will deal with that shortly when we start talking about John 6 verse by verse.
A few important things here. He spoke in parables so people WOULD NOT understand, lest they turn.
Again this all relates to John 6. Just hold on a little bit longer and we will deal with this together.
Here is my conviction because you seem confused. Saving faith is a gift therefore faith is not a work. When we deny that saving faith is a gift, then we make it into a work. See the difference? Faith becomes a work for those who reject it as a gift of God.
We could say that a house is a dwelling place therefore it is a gift. I would say that a house is not a gift and you say that if I deny that a house is a gift then I must be denying it is a dwelling place. Your words are not logical and using this kind of reasoning doesn’t convince anyone. How about we stick to the Scriptures and use it to defend our view.
So here is the deal. Calvin said that there would be those who would be given faith but not saving faith and God gives them this faith in order to condemn them. So please show me this kind of “faith” in the Scriptures that is not saving faith and since it is apparently not saving faith, please show me where the Scriptures calls faith as “works”. I will be waiting with baited breath.
Semi-pelagianism was condemned, that is reality. It denied that our salvation was fully the work of God. It denied that faith, repentance etc are the gracious gifts of God. It maintained that we as fallen people still have the capacity (with a little bit of God’s help but not all) to come after and seek God. It is the same old problem that the church has faced.
Pelagianism said that people can come to God on their own without God. They were able to work their way to God and it is considered a heresy. You have been sold a bill of goods that “semi-pelagianism” is what all non-Calvinists believe. Hog wash.
In Semipelagian thought, man doesn’t have such an unrestrained capacity, but man and God could cooperate to a certain degree in this salvation effort: man can (unaided by grace) make the first move toward God, and God then increases and guards that faith, completing the work of salvation. see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semi-Pelagianism
However the Scriptures never say that man can make the first move toward God without God drawing him. Salvation is not a work between God and man. Salvation is a full work by God alone and man believes God after God has drawn Him and revealed truth to Him. Do you not see the difference? It is a real insult to call a Christian a semi-pelagian and I won’t let that kind of insult be committed on my blog. If this is not understandable, then perhaps do some reading on the internet and educate yourself on the difference between the heresy and orthodox Christian faith.
How free-will and God’s sovereignty go hand in hand.
They do not go hand in hand in works. Saving faith is not a work.
Maybe you can clearly outline how you see salvation works?
This is a very simplistic version: God draws the sinner to Himself and the sinner responds. When a person then comes to the place of repentance after God’s Holy Spirit has been working on his heart, he responds to God in faith and God then works the miracle of salvation in his heart. The miracle is done by God alone and is a work that could only be attributed by God. It is a miracle that takes a blackened heart of sin and cleans the heart and creates a brand new spirit within that person that is from God Himself. The person then is born from above as a child of God and God lives within him/her. The person has responded with faith but none of the work that takes to make the person a new creation, a clean heart or a new spirit, with the person as a child of God can be attributed to the person. We have no power or ability to do these things. They are done by God alone. All we can to is respond to the work of the Holy Spirit and repent and believe God. God says that this is faith and He says it is not a work. Mark, if you didn’t understand any of this before you became a Calvinist, it is no wonder that you went onto that pathway. You just didn’t understand the process of Salvation from the Scriptures.
That is all I can do right now. Time for me to work on a few more things before I head off to bed. I’ll see what I can finish and whatever I can’t finish tomorrow, I’ll just leave for now as we work on John 6. Okay?
“But again I mentioned that Romans 3 is a quote from the OT where the context is the fool who says there is no God. Paul would not illegally use an OT quote to mean the opposite of what God inspired as Paul supported Scripture. He did not twist Scripture to his own use.”
Maybe after John 6 we can go through Romans and actually look at the context right from 1:18 through to the end of chapter 3. Then perhaps you might see Paul’s point in relation to sin. Paul’s argument flows from the pagan world in Chapter 1 to the jews. Just in case the Jews (or you Cheryl) think we are any better, Paul asks a thetoric question “Are we Jews any better off” His answer is NO, because both Jew and Greek are alike…he then quotes from various Psalms to prove his point. It seems plain here that you have not allowed context to determine the use of the quote. There is no hint what so ever that Paul is only addressing ‘the fool who saids there is no God’. Indeed, Paul includes himself in the quote using the 3rd person plural ‘we’. Your exegesis is flawed and wrong. The context in Romans denies the possibility of your interpretation.
I wonder if Calvin had the parable of the sower in mind in the quote you gave. Don’t some grow for a period then die, where as the true seed grows and lives. Sounds biblical to me.
It is interesesting that you do not believe that free-will and God’s sovereignty do not go hand in hand. Let me ask who sold Joseph and sent him to Egypt. OR again, who crucified Christ? With Joseph his brothers by their ‘wills’ sent him off. According to the gospel many people used their ‘wills’ to kill Jesus. But what else does the scripture, since we both want the Bible to speak
“I am your brother, Joseph, whom you sold into Egypt. 5 And now do not be distressed or angry with yourselves because you sold me here, for God sent me before you to preserve life.
8 So it was not you who sent me here, but God.
22 “Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested to you by God with mighty works and wonders and signs that God did through him in your midst, as you yourselves know— 23 this Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men.
So Cheryl, you are wrong. Men were guilty in both cases for their free-will, but clearly in both cases it happened according to God’s sovereign will and plan. This is why it is indeed a ‘mystery’, but the raw facts of the Bible teach the tension.
Pinklight,
I really do want you or Kay or Cheryl to use scripture to show me your doctrines. Rather than just criticising what i am saying, how about you guys share your theology and see how ‘consistent’ with the Bible it is. Kay’s definition of sovereignty is not even in the Bible, mine is. Cheryl didn’t even give her definition, but i assume it follows Kay’s definition by what she wrote. I look forward to yours. No-one has dealt with Romans 8-11, Eph 1 or any other teaching on predestination. All i have heard so far is critiques of mine by humanistic reasoning, not the word of God. If any of you believe that our ‘predestination’ is governed by God’s foreknowledge of what we choose- show me the scriptures which say this. I’m hearing alot of critiques but not much alternatives.
“Also the doctrine of predestination (unconditional) also emphasises God’s grace. Nothing we do or can do will save us. It is merely according to God’s pleasure and will that some are saved.
Rom 9:15 For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.”
Mark,
What I find in Romans 9 when looking into the context, shows that Paul was explaining God’s right to predetermine and use the nation of Israel to produce the Messiah.
The spiritual salvation of individuals, especially a predestined, unconditional election, is not the subject of Romans 9. Romans was written to a fellowship containing both Jewish and Gentile Christians. And their differing backgrounds presented problems for the congregation. Ch.9 is preceded by the encouragement, promise, and hope of security in the Lord of Romans 8:31-39. It was clear at that time, that as a nation, the Jews were rejecting God.
Both Jew and Gentile Christian might ask, “Had God not elected and predestined Israel?” Paul seems to have anticipated this question.
“For I could wish that I myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my countrymen according to the flesh, who are Israelites, to whom pertain the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the service of God, and the promises; of whom are the fathers and from whom, according to the flesh, Christ came, who is over all, the eternally blessed God. Amen.” Romans 9:1-5
Ask yourself, “Who is Paul concerned about?” Is it not national, physical Israel? Paul, a Jew himself, states the subject as his “brethren” and “countrymen according to the *flesh”, not spiritual brethren in Christ.
Paul seems to here address the appearance that God’s promise and efforts failed for the Jews, for he says: “But it is not that the word of God has taken no effect. For they are not all Israel who are of Israel, nor are they all children because they are the seed of Abraham; but, “In Isaac your seed shall be called.” That is, those who are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God; but the children of the promise are counted as the seed.” Romans 9:6-8
Here we are introduced to the concept of “spiritual Israel” versus “flesh, physical Israel”. In 9:3-5, Paul discussed Israelites who were identified “according to the flesh”.
“For this is the word of promise: “At this time I will come and Sarah shall have a son.” And not only this, but when Rebecca also had conceived by one man, even by our father Isaac (for the children not yet being born, nor having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works but of Him who calls), it was said to her, “The older shall serve the younger.” As it is written, “Jacob I have loved, but Esau I have hated.” Romans 9:9-13
Now, please ask yourself this question, “Up to this point, has Paul been focused on the election of *individuals* or *nations*?” Recall verses 1-5. Physical, national Israel has clearly been the topic of concern.
Unfortunately, the Calvinist begins reading at vs14 – without the benefit of the previous context. Consequently, although the passage never mentions salvation, the Calvinist ‘assumes’ that the discussion pertains to the predetermined, unconditional election of individuals unto salvation.
Did God’s choice of Jacob over Esau pertain to an election of *individuals* unto salvation? Or, did God’s choice relate to the roles of *nations* in God’s plan to fulfill the promises to Abraham and produce the Messiah?
Some Calvinist’ may acknowledge that the context of Romans 9:1-15 is indeed dealing with nations, not individuals, and reply, “But, that makes my point even stronger! God is sovereignly saving or condemning entire nations, not just individuals!” This statement overlooks the second aspect of the Calvinist assumption: The context is dealing with a nation’s role in God’s providence and plan to bring forth the *Messiah*, not the *salvation of a nation*. Otherwise, we would be forced to conclude that all Edomites were condemned and that all the Jews were saved.
From this point, he is arguing that God does not owe the Jews *spiritual salvation*, even if they are Abraham’s seed. People are saved according to God’s promise, not by virtue of their *ancestry*.
“What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? Certainly not! For He says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion.” So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy.” Romans 9:14-16
Paul’s goes on anticipating a charge from a dissatisfied Jew – recall, it was Jews that Paul was grieving. It was Jews, who were not christians, despite being Israelites according to the flesh.
Does this passage reveal the *basis* of God’s choice? That purpose is not even mentioned here! Only assumption can inject a basis into the passage. *Again, we must be careful not to assume Calvin’s connotation of election and predestination.*
“What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He had prepared beforehand for glory ..” (22-23)
Calvinists see the phrases, “vessels of wrath prepared for destruction”, and “vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand”, and assume Calvin’s definition of preparation – an unconditional, individual predestination.
We humans know how we must exercise longsuffering in following through on projects we start. We accidentally, or even deliberately dig a hole for ourselves and must labor to dig our way back out? But does God?
How can a perfect, omniscient, omnipotent God ever exercise longsuffering with Himself? If He has sovereignly decided, decreed, and designed these wicked non-elect, then He is really being longsuffering with Himself! His efforts exerted upon these vessels that He alone prepared reduces to a struggle with Himself!
How can He possibly exercise longsuffering with them, essentially Himself, unless He failed to foresee, control, or prepare for these exasperating beings? … *Or*, unless He gave them an option, and He now bears with their abuse of His *freedom*? … If this passage teaches Calvinism, then it contradicts Calvin’s view of a supreme God.
“He who covers his sins will not prosper, But whoever confesses and forsakes them will have mercy. Happy is the man who is always reverent, But he who hardens his heart will fall into calamity.” Prv.28:13
“Let the wicked forsake his way, And the unrighteous man his thoughts; Let him return to the LORD, And He will have mercy on him; And to our God, For He will abundantly pardon.” Isaiah 55:7
Mark,
One more thing –
“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world , that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will,” Ephesians 1:3-5
So, certainly God predestines certain events and outcomes, even that Jesus would die for our sins (I Peter 1:19-20). But it is a leap in logic to assume that God has predestined each Christian independent of their own free will. Unless you approach the verse with that as a prerequisite.
This passage is almost entirely ambiguous as to the basis of this predestination. The only language which refers to how Christians were predestined are the phrases, “blessed … in Christ”, “chose … in Him”, and “predestined … by Jesus Christ”. Each of these modifying phrases indicate that it is by being in Jesus, or as a member of His group, that one receives these *blessings*. The only “predestined” activity is that those in Christ would “be adopted.”
In Romans 11, Paul the analogy the olive tree to illustrate to Gentile readers the role of the Jewish nation in their salvation. “For if the firstfruit is holy, the lump is also holy; and if the root is holy, so are the branches. And if some of the branches were broken off, and you, being a wild olive tree, were grafted in among them , and with them became a partaker of the root and fatness of the olive tree, do not boast against the branches. But if you do boast, remember that you do not support the root, but the root supports you. You will say then, “Branches were broken off that I might be grafted in.”
“Because of unbelief they were broken off , and you stand by faith. Do not be haughty, but fear. For if God did not spare the natural branches, He may not spare you either. Therefore consider the goodness and severity of God: on those who fell, severity; but toward you, goodness, if you continue in His goodness. Otherwise you also will be cut off . And they also, if they do not continue in unbelief, will be grafted in , for God is able to graft them in again.” Romans 11:16-23
Not only from this passage do we see the actual severing and removal of those who were once original, or natural branches, but we also see different branches, who were not originally branches, being grafted in their place. Consider Rom. 9 in light of this also.
If the election is ordained from before time, how is it possible that the ‘elect’ should become ‘reprobate’ and the reprobate could become elect? Moreover, how could “unbelief” be a condition of severance, while “continuing in His goodness” be a condition of blessing, if there are no conditions?
Kay,
Let me say first of all thankyou for actually addressing a text. But let me say I am unconvinced of your exegesis. After all if Paul here is talking ONLY about the nation of Israel being elect why does Paul expect backlash and ask those rhetoric questions. Why would what he says be offensive? The Jews know they are his elect nation.
However, I disagree that Calvinists begin in verse 15. That is totally wrong. Let’s go back over it.
At the end of chapter 8, this famous passage confirms something for the Roman believers “nothing can separate us from God”. If this be true (which I believe it is), then what has happened to the Jews? Has God seperated himself from the elect nation?
Paul’s answer is no! He outlines all the blessings given to Israel (9:1-5). He says he wishes he could be cut off for their sakes. They had the patriarchs, covenants, promises… so how is it that these are the very people who have rejected Christ? The answer comes, to show how it is that God’s word has not failed.
“For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel”
Now let me ask what does this mean to you? From the context it is clear that although the nation of Israel had all the things outlined in verse 1-5, that does not mean they received individual salvation. Only ‘true’ Israel receives salvation. This is the crux verse for the interpretation of Romans 9. If Paul is only interested in ‘nations’ it makes no sense of this verse. Paul is interested in showing how God’s word has not failed PRECISELY because not all of national Israel are true Israel (individual salvation). This themes is constantly expanded throughout the next 2 chapters aswell, when Paul is discussing the ‘remnant’- that is, those within the nation ho were actually saved into eternal life.
Paul then uses 2 Old Testament example to prove his point. First, Abraham! Issac was chosen not Ishmael purely on God’s mercy. But of course the objection could be raised about these 2 children of Abraham having different mothers. So Paul uses example 2- Isaac’s children. Both of Isaac’s children have the same mother and indeed both are conceived at the same time, yet God in his sovereign mercy, chose Jacob and not Esau. Paul then quotes various Old Testament references showing his point from the scriptures- the older will serve the younger, Jacob I loved, Esau I hated.
Now it is clear that this would upset people. If this is true about God’s pure sovereign choice of one over another, then how is that fair? In fact, how can we be judged if we are just fulfilling God’s predetermined plan for our lives (sounds familiar does it not?). Paul answers those objection in verses 14-21. God has mercy on who he wills. He hardens whom he wills. Election does not depend on HUMAN WILL or effort, but on the contrary, God’s mercy. It makes no sense to go with your interpretation and understand either verse 6 or verses 14-21. If Paul’s intention was purely ‘national’ verse 6 lies, and there would have been no objections to his teaching. After all the Jews already knew they were God’s chosen nation.
Romans 9:27 deals with the remnant
Romans 9:6 deals with the remnant
Romans 11:5 deals with the remnant
Frankly, nothing in these chapters gives the indication that Paul means nations, unless of course you want to say that the remnant is a nation!
In chapter 11 Paul again asks the question whether God’s word has failed. On the contrary he quotes again from the Old Testament when God had a remnant of ‘faithful individuals’ when the nation was in apostasy during Elijah’s time. He further expands that what Israel sought to obtain it failed because salvation is by faith not works which is what the ‘elect’ recieved. He also further enhances from the scriptures again how God has hardened to Jews in the present age to bring in the gentiles.
Again let me say that exegetically (and I only brushed through it all) the only possible way to read these chapters is what I have outlined. God has elected individuals purely on his mercy from both the Jews and gentiles. If this seems unfair to some, they need to come to terms that God is God. He is the potter, we are the clay.
To read it purely nationally does not do justice to the text exegetically. Not only that, but how is it still not unfair that God chooses a nation over other nations. It seems hypocritical that you can say God can choose a nation but not individuals.
Finally I totally disagree that the passage is showing how the nation of Israel brought forth the messiah. That is a massive interpolation into the text. Nothing in Romans 9-11 is dealing with how Jesus descended from Abraham. You have totally changed what the text is dealing with. Paul no where deals with ‘messiah’, ‘Jesus’, lineage or any other such notions. This is precisely the problem with rejecting the reformed view- it has to ignore the grammer, the intention of the passage, and include things that are not there.
But again let me say, that at least you tried to deal with a text. Perhaps now you can attempt to show me where our faith is foreknown by God, therefore that is why we are predestined unto salvation.
Kay,
Again let me commend you for addressing Romans 1. Can you state though at what point you disagree with me. Are you saying you agree that Romans 1:18-3:20 should not be used to support total depravity?
Let me ask you to read over the entire pericope, Romans 1:18-3:20
After outlining the Pagan world in chapter 1 Paul opens chapter saying that ‘you’ (Roman Church) therefore have no excuse to judge others, why? Because as Paul says, you who do pass judgement do the SAME THINGS. Here Paul is addressing the ‘gentile’ CHRISTIAN audience of the Roman church because we see in 2:17, he switches to address the Jews about the law.
In chapter 3 Paul asks if there is any advantage in being a Jew then above a gentile, now that Christ has come. By the time we reach verse 9 Paul has concluded that we ought not to increase our unrighteousness in order to increase God’s righteousness.
Verse 9 is extremely important because Paul asks the questions “What shall we say then? Are WE any better? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and gentiles alike are all under sin. As it is written…”
So just in case the Jews think that are somehow more superior than the gentiles or Pagan world, he tells them no. We are all under sin. He then uses various Old Testament quotes (to show the Jews from THEIR scriptures) the nature of them aswell.
Now there is nothing in the surrounding contexts at all to tell us Paul is only addressing people who do not fear God. After all Paul s writing to a CHRISTIAN church not God haters.
Also remember the more immediate context as Paul is addressing the law (2:17-3:20). And we know that no righteousness is obtained from the law. That is why Paul begins in 3:21 to address God’s righteousness found in faith not the law. Paul I sshowing the jews from their scriptures that 1) righteousness is not found in the law and 2) they are no better than the gentiles- that is we are ALL totally depraved.
Therefore application of these chapters is easy. The whole pericope should be understood to apply to all people, because that is Paul’s conclusion. We are all alike under sin. Paul has simply used a gentile argument and then a jewish argument to come to the same conclusion. That is why I reject the claim of Cheryl’s that I am using of these verse out of context. If Paul’s intention is not meant to be understood universally, then of course there is no application to these chapters because it simply applies to these various groups. But since Paul is addressing a congregation of gentile and Jew Christians, and correlating these Christians to Pagan people, and Old Testament people, the conclusion is clear. The Romans are the same, as are we. Total depravity is true and correct.
Again this is a brush through the pericope. You really need to study the context Kay as does Cheryl.
Kay
About Eph 2. Look again at what we are predestined for. It is not simply that the way to salvation is predestined (as Arminius taught) but us.
We are chosen in Christ before the creation of the world (Eph 1:4)
Now what are we chosen for? The rest of verse 4 tells us “to be holy and blameless in His sight”. Now let me aks you, how do we become holy and blameless in God’s sight. Hopefuuly we agree, that it is by being justified in Christ that we receive this status.
Therefore this verse is clear that we are chosen before the world to be justified and thus made holy and blameless.
Verse 5 expands this. We are predestined to be adopted as sons through Christ. Now again how is this done- justification is it not. So we are predestined to be justified. And to finish it off Paul says in verse 5 that this is done how? “in accordance with His (God’s) pleasure and will”.
It is clear that we are chosen to be sons, to be adopted, to be holy and blameless ALL before the creation of the world and ONLY according to GOD”S pleasure and will. There is nothing at all here that saids because of our free-will to choose him like you said.
It is you who is reading something into the text. I am letting the text speak for itself. This is clear in the fact that you say it “is a leap of logic’. I’m not interested like I said in philosophical reasoning. I’m only interested in what the Bible says. Please do justice to the text not your reason or logic on these issues.
Now you also addressed Romans 11 and asked this
“If the election is ordained from before time, how is it possible that the ‘elect’ should become ‘reprobate’ and the reprobate could become elect? Moreover, how could “unbelief” be a condition of severance, while “continuing in His goodness” be a condition of blessing, if there are no conditions?”
You have missed the whole point of Romans 9-11. Let me refer you back to 9:6, not all Israel are Israel. Paul is not saying that the ‘nation’ of Israel receives salvation. ON the contrary it is the remnant. So the elect have not become the reprobate, because as Paul’s argument shows, they were never the elect to salvation to begin with. It is clear that you don’t actually understand Romans 9-11.
Also no one saids that you don’t have to believe to become a child of God. Entry into the kingdom requires faith in the atoning work of Christ. The question is has God chosen before the world who he would give the gifts of faith and repentance too. The Bible says yes. So entry into the kingdom is of course conditional on faith, but election as recipients of this grace is unconditional on God’s choice before the world began.
Kay, let me challenge you to actually accept what the Bible teaches although you think it contradicts with your ‘reasoning’. We are all post enlightenment people and the effects of humanistic reasoning have damaged proper interpretation of the Bible. Our job is not to use or reason to contradict the Bible, but the preach the truth of the scriptures. You need to look beyond philosophy. I challenge you to do that (this is also in brethrenly love)
Mark,
You said:
I agree that God is rich in mercy- none of us deserve to be saved, we have all fallen short of the glory of God have we not? But still only a limited number of people are saved. Even you believe this because you are not a universalist. You can’t discredit Calvinists because they believe that a limited number are saved. Any evangelical believes that, reformed or not.
I will agree that there are few who are saved, but this is because few put their faith in Christ and accept God’s free gift. It isn’t because God has predestined the majority to be created unconditionally to go to hell without the price paid for them by Jesus on the cross. But to charge God with deliberately and willfully and unconditionally creating people to go to hell, is not the God of love and the God who is filled with mercy to the many.
If we say that fearing God saves us and that it is in our own strength, then yes it is works based.
I have already told you that we cannot save ourself. Our fear cannot save us and our faith cannot do the work of creating a clean heart and giving us eternal life. Only God can save us as His work alone saves. However God who has free choices, has the freedom to give His free gift with a condition of faith. Claiming that faith is a work in this instance is akin to claiming that cashing a welfare cheque is work! One who cashes their welfare cheque is accepting a free gift and they cannot claim that they have worked for the money.
David is a great example of all this. He was a God fearing man, he worshiped God, he loved God. Yet he continually asked that God would enable him to do this.
David didn’t ask God to “enable” him to fear or “enable” him to worship or “enable” him to love God. Rather he asked God to teach him, given him understanding and lead him. The passage that you quoted does not say that fear is a gift. Instead David says that the ungodly don’t fear because of their own sin, not because God hasn’t “gifted” them with fear.
Psalm 36:1 (NASB) Transgression speaks to the ungodly within his heart; There is no fear of God before his eyes.
God acts so that all may fear Him, but never does the Scripture say that God drops fear as a gift in a person’s heart. Fear is what we do as a response to what God does.
Psalm 67:7 (NASB)
7 God blesses us,
That all the ends of the earth may fear Him.David didn’t trust in his own fear or faith or ability.
No one is saying that we are to trust our fear. What I am saying is that our fear shows our obedience to God and it is not a gift that God drops into our heart without any repentance on our part.
He knew all these things were the gift of God.
David never says that his “fear” is a gift from God.
He prayed to his Father that God may continue to bless him with those things.
The thing that David is asking God to bless him with is God’s promises.
This is the reformed position in a nutshell.
So the reformed “Calvinist” position is that the fear of God is a “gift”? How sad that although Scripture never says God gifts people with fear, that we are expected to wait for fear to be dropped into our heart as a “gift” instead of responding of our own free will. I have never seen such a system in Christianity that read so much into the words of Scripture in order to prove their own doctrine. It sure does remind me of Paul’s words to the Galatians in Gal. 3:1. I wonder how many books they had to read to believe in the additions to the Scripture? I am not trying to put you down at all. I am just amazed at how “gift” can be read into anything without so much as the word being used in the passage or the thought expressed. And where else is this “gift” of fear expressed? What man of God in the Bible ever called the fear of God a gift?
But we dare never look to our own strength and ability nor should we think we know who God bestows his gifts too.
God has clearly spoken that He has paid the price for all for salvation is an unmerited “gift” offered to all who will accept His condition.
Anyway I need to take a break. I’l let you catch up before I comment again.
Thanks! You must have more time on your hands these days as it has been difficult for me to catch up to you. I want to finish shortly and then start John 6 and we can stick with it until we are done.
Mark,
You said:
I don’t think you should doubt Jesus. But I don’t think taking universal language the way you do is correct. After all Romans 5 says that Jesus justified ‘all’ men. Should we take that to mean every single person. Now I know your not a universalist so I’m sure you don’t, therefore why do you take Jn 12 to mean every single person in the world?
What you fail to see is that Jesus paid the price for all men and justified all men by His sacrifice but the price had to be applied before that justification can be put on our behalf.
Let me ask you…did Jesus pay for your justification on the cross? When was that payment made on your account? Was it made when Jesus died or was it placed on your account when you believed? Or when?
Romans 5 shows that God reconciled all of His enemies through the cross. The justification happened at the cross. But the application was yet to be applied. The fact is that Christians are those who have had that payment and the justification put onto their account.
I am sure that you also believe in a two part justification with the price paid and the price applied. Why should that be any different from those who had the price paid but who refuse the payment?
Not only that but how does Jesus draw all the people in the world who have never heard about Him.
Jesus is God. He is able to work in the hearts of people to draw them to Himself even if they do not know Him as God. He worked on my heart through the Holy Spirit before I became saved. He draws them to Himself through the revelation that He has already given them.
Have you not heard of cases where God has drawn people in lands that have not heard of Him and yet they were waiting and ready for when the missionaries came and they received the gospel with joy. To say that God is limited in drawing people to prepare their hearts for the gospel would be a sad revelation of your view of the Sovereignty of God.
Why should we bother reaching the unreached if Jesus has already drawn them? See the problem?
Because drawing people doesn’t save them. They still need the gospel. What drawing does is prepare them to hear the gospel.
We need to be careful when the bible uses universal language and not just pick and choose to fit our theology.
May I respectfully say that we should be very careful when universal language is used and interpret it to mean only a few.
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him.
Do you think John’s intention here is that every single person in the world did not recognize or know Jesus. Surely not because we know from the gospels that people did. This is the problem with basing a theology on universal terms- you come across so many contradictions.
You have missed the point of the verse. John is saying that it was Jesus who was the Creator of the world and the world did not recognize Him as Creator. In fact it wasn’t until Jesus died and was resurrected that the disciples recognized Him as the Creator. The first clear response to His evidence that He was the Creator God was from Thomas after Jesus’ resurrection:
John 20:27–28 (NASB)
27 Then He said to Thomas, “Reach here with your finger, and see My hands; and reach here your hand and put it into My side; and do not be unbelieving, but believing.”
28 Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!”
Where is such a clear recognition of the Creator made while He was here living as a mere human? They did not recognize Him. But they did recognize Him for all that He is after the resurrection.
So once again the universal language shows that the Scriptures are true. We do not take universal language and remake the universality to mean just a mere few.
Now also about Jn 12:32 look closely at verse 33
Joh 12:32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.”
Joh 12:33 He said this to show by what kind of death he was going to die.If Jesus said this about his death, how can he draw every single person unless his intention was that his death brought atonement and salvation for every single person.
He did bring atonement and salvation for every single person. But not all people accepted His gift. You see, this is where you and I differ. I accept the Bible for the inspired words and I work hard not to reinterpret these prophetic utterances to make them mean far less then the full truth.
This simply is not the case because not everyone is saved.
The price paid has nothing to do with how many people are saved. Jesus paid the price whether it was accepted by all or not.
I don’t believe this verse supports your argument at all. John is particularly a writer who uses universal language a lot, and many people bring contradictions into the text by adopting wrong conclusions on universal language.
This again is your problem. You do not believe. No offense meant, but I see that you have been bewitched to believe a doctrine that contradicts Scripture. The doctrine that you hold on to and love causes you to reject the prophesies of Jesus on the atonement.
I could never love a doctrine that would force me to reject the clear teaching of the Scriptures in context and force me to reinterpret the teachings in order to make the doctrine true in my eyes. It is my sincerest desire to follow God and to lay aside my preconceptions to accept the Scripture’s testimony. I could never face God with such clear Scriptures saying that Jesus died for all men and that He draws all men and tell God that I just couldn’t believe that.
Mark,
You said:
Let me see if I understand your view.
1. Jesus draws every single person in the world to himself
2. But not everyone comes to the Father
3. Those who come to the Father are those who are seeking/fear God and therefore believe.
3 is not right. Although all those who fear God will be brought to the covenant, God still calls those who don’t fear God and they can obey God when He calls them.
I have a problem with this. Even in my own experience this doesn’t work.
You probably should have checked first before find a problem with your misunderstanding.
God doesn’t reward those who are seeking him more than those who are not.
Malachi 3:16–18 (NASB)
The Book of Remembrance
16 Then those who feared the LORD spoke to one another, and the LORD gave attention and heard it, and a book of remembrance was written before Him for those who fear the LORD and who esteem His name.
17 “They will be Mine,” says the LORD of hosts, “on the day that I prepare My own possession, and I will spare them as a man spares his own son who serves him.”
18 So you will again distinguish between the righteous and the wicked, between one who serves God and one who does not serve Him.
Mark, it looks like you are contradicting God who rewards those who fear Him by making a difference between the righteous (those who choose to fear God) and the wicked who refuse to fear God. I choose to believe God.
This view gives us room to boast. I got salvation because I was seeking type of idea.
No room to boast since we cannot earn salvation. Those who fear God are not the ones who are boasting, but they are humbled by their recognition of their need for God.
We are saved purely by the mercy and grace of God. But maybe this isn’t how you see it/ Let me know
We are not saved by fear, but God promises to bring those who fear Him to salvation. It is purely by God’s grace. Read the passage above again and see what you think. What is God saying? Is God lying to us or does He really make a difference between those who fear Him and those who do not.
Mark,
You said:
So we both agree that God draws, calls, opens eyes, soften hearts all before people accept the message of Christ. But yet i guess we still disagree that faith is a gift. I’m quite surprised actually that you don’t even believe grace is a gift.
In the passage, grace is not spoken of as a gift. God’s grace or His unmerited favor is why He gives us the gift of salvation, but the passage has one gift alone. It is singular not plural. One gift, not three. I believe that God inspired the Word this way so that we would not become confused. Can you imagine that worry of a person who is not sure if the faith they have is their own faith or whether it is God’s gift? It would cause many to wonder if they are really saved. The fact is that if we have faith in God it is the only kind of faith that we need and it will be accounted to us as righteousness. If it was a gift of God it wouldn’t need to be “credited” to us as righteousness, it would be “gifted”.
Can i ask is repentance a gift or not?
No, rather it is an assignment, an authority to carry out a task, an entrusting, a grant, an allowance. If God does not assign or allow repentance, no repentance can happen. When God hardens one’s heart, there is no allowance for repentance.
Also you did not define your view of God’s sovereignty. You simply asked me if God had the ability to make choices.
I am sure that I defined God’s sovereignty, but honestly I am too tired to go through the comments to find it. But I don’t have a problem refining.
God’s Sovereignty is the Divine Power to do whatever He wants to do that is not against His nature.
Psalm 115:3 (NASB)
3 But our God is in the heavens;
He does whatever He pleases.Daniel 4:35 (NASB)
35 “All the inhabitants of the earth are accounted as nothing,
But He does according to His will in the host of heaven
And among the inhabitants of earth;
And no one can ward off His hand
Or say to Him, ‘What have You done?’
Whatever God pleases will never be unjust or unrighteous for that would go against His nature as God cannot sin.
Why is it people will go to such lengths when Romans 9-11 is so clear. You want me to reject the reformed position and accept a view that is not even found in the Bible. Come on now.
And Romans 9 – 11 is so clear to me that God does not do anything that goes against His nature and He is kind and merciful. When Romans 9 – 11 is studied from the Bible alone without the mindset of Calvinism, this passage is breathtaking in showing God’s mercy, not God’s unjust hatred of babies. Maybe we can get to that passage at some point.
With regards to the limited atonement, i wonder how you understand John 10, when Jesus himslef declares that he lays down his life ‘for his sheep’. Maybe you think God’s sheep is everybody, i dunno?
I just take Jesus at His word with His inspired words. Jesus said that He lays down his life for His sheep. I accept that. But did Jesus say that I lay down my life only for my sheep? If He didn’t, why would we add that in?
I wonder if you feel that the OT sacrifices atoned for the whole world? Is this what you believe, or was it limited?
Any person from any nation was allowed to join with Israel and they could be a part of the covenant.
Nothing in scripture teaches that Jesus atoned for the sins of every single person except the passages that use universal language.
Then why don’t you believe this language? Do you think that God could not have inspired the terms “died for the few” or “paid for the elect alone”? Was God trying to confuse us by using universal language or should we believe Him that He said that He meant?
Now we can have a more thorough discussion on that terminology but i think we both know the danger in placing a theology on universal language. After all, this is precisely what universalists do.
The universalists do much more. They teach that the death of Jesus bought the application of the price that Jesus paid. They do not believe in a two-fold sacrifice & application. This is where they go wrong. I spent months dealing with a universalist years ago who had crept in unawares to a Calvary Chapel church where he was recruiting for universalism. My friends were having him do “bible studies” at their home and one of them was being sucked in to the lies. I took on the guy head on as if I was a mother lion protecting her young. That experience was very educational for me. And the universalist did not win. The study was dismantled and he was forced to leave the church and my friends were saved from his influence.
You can’t have Jesus saying he only died for his sheep (limited) and that he died for the whole world (unlimited).
Where does Jesus say “only” His sheep. You see, this is the problem of Calvinism. It teaches you to read into the text what is not there. Jesus NEVER said ONLY His sheep. If I am wrong, please show me.
Clearly universal language is the more ambiguous, since the analogy of sheep and goats is quite clear.
No, universal language is not ambiguous. It is the truth that Jesus came to testify to. And certainly we know that the goats will be separated from the sheep in the end, but where did Jesus say that He didn’t die for the goats?
I have already shown one example from John to disprove the universal language assumption, but there are plenty more.
And I have already disproved your example. Unfortunately one has to come to the passage with a preconceived idea of what it says before your interpretation can even hope to stand. It isn’t what the passage says.
I agree, Cheryl’s analogy is worthless.(why is it Cheryl you used an analogy anyway after slamming Gazza’s earlier) That is precisely why i said her view of the atonement is also limited.
I don’t think that Gazza said “worthless”. He was asking questions not “slamming” me. And why do we have to use such language as “slamming”? We are having a passionate discussion here and we don’t need to introduce fighting words, do we? Let’s just keep this as a discussion between brothers and sisters in Christ. That is unless you really don’t believe that I am your sister in Christ. In that case you may just want to pray for God to grant me repentance and just leave the discussion alone.
“Both of Isaac’s children have the same mother and indeed both are conceived at the same time, yet God in his sovereign mercy, chose Jacob and not Esau. Paul then quotes various Old Testament references showing his point from the scriptures- the older will serve the younger, Jacob I loved, Esau I hated.”
Mark,
Let’s take a closer look at that.
“And not only this, but when Rebecca also had conceived by one man, even by our father Isaac (for the children not yet being born, nor having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works but of Him who calls), it was said to her, “The older shall serve the younger.” As it is written, “Jacob I have loved, but Esau I have hated.” Rom. 9:9-13
Notice that Paul quotes two Old Testament passages, which he believed to support his point (“for the children … it was said to her, … as it is written”). Therefore, we should be able to look at these two passages in their *context*. By reading them, as Paul would have read hundreds of times, maybe you can better understand my point.
“But the children struggled together within her; and she said, “If all is well, why am I like this?” So she went to inquire of the LORD. And the LORD said to her:”Two nations are in your womb, Two peoples shall be separated from your body; One people shall be stronger than the other, And the older shall serve the younger.” Gen. 25:22-23
Rebecca was carrying two individuals, yes. But, God foresaw two people groups, and He clearly tells Rebecca. It is from this vantage point that God foretells her that the “the older shall serve the younger”. In other words, the nation that descended from the older brother would serve the nation that descended from the younger brother.
What part of “the older will serve the younger” has to do with eternal salvation?
As individuals, did Esau (older) serve Jacob (younger), or did Jacob serve Esau?
Wasn’t it Jacob who was terrified of Esau? (Gen.32)
Wasn’t it Jacob who bowed down 7 times before Esau? (Gen. 33)
In their lifetimes, Jacob came far closer to serving Esau, than Esau ever came to serving Jacob. So, if this prophecy referred to the individuals, it failed! And since God’s prophecies cannot fail, this prophecy of the younger’s supremacy must not be referring to individuals!
Esau’s people, the Edomites, tormented the Israelites during their journey to Canaan (Num. 20:14-21). It was only after over one thousand years, when Babylon and Greece attacked Edom, that we see a significant distinction. Israel survives as a remnant, but the Edomites were virtually wiped out.
“Even though Edom has said, “We have been impoverished, But we will return and build the desolate places,” Thus says the LORD of hosts: “They may build, but I will throw down; They shall be called the Territory of Wickedness, And the people against whom the LORD will have indignation forever. (Malachi 1)
The Edomites, descendents of Esau, were a “people against whom” God’s wrath and indignation moved. They were “hated”, *because* they were *wicked*. This “hatred” is not absolute, but relative. The word, “hatred”, is only raised in contrast with God’s “love” for the people of Jacob. Remember that the Edomites were blessed with land and nation as well. Also, compare to Jesus’ usage of “hatred” toward family relative to the required “love” for Him, Luke 14:26. In this quoted context of Malachi 1, the ultimate distinction between Esau and Jacob was that God spared a *remnant* from Jacob’s seed, through whom came the Messiah, but Esau’s seed were destroyed because they became wicked. This context shows applicability to the role of the *nations* or people groups, not the *salvation* of the two original brothers.
So, where in all this did God’s election of Jacob over Esau pertain to an election of *individuals* unto *salvation*?
And again, what part of “the older will serve the younger” has to do with eternal salvation?
Hi Gazza, and thanks for joining the discussion again.
You said:
Yet in Post 244 you expressed sadness that people believe “that God deliberately and unconditionally creates people to go to hell.”
I struggle to put these together. If God indeed had no doubt about who or how many will be saved then at the point he creates those who will rejet Him is He not knowingly creating someone who will go to hell?
Yes, God is knowingly creating people who will reject Him and go to hell. However this is far different than God creating people who unconditionally are created to go to hell.
The difference is that in the first instance these people may have put their faith in Him and in the second instance they may not. If God unconditionally creates them to go to hell, then it is God who desires them to go there without any conditions including their sin. Their election to reprobation before they ever sinned and before they were created demanded their destruction. If we did this, we would be considered unfair and may I dare say monstrous? It would be like a judge who arbitrarily pre-decides cases brought before him without even looking at the case history or evidence. He could say that cases 1, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9 will be sentenced with the death penalty and cases 2, 4, and 8 will set set free. His decision is made of his own will and without any conditions on the person or the crime. We would want that judge fired.
But God bringing people into the world that have been given a free-will choice that He knows will exercise that choice to reject Him is not even in the same category. Everyday Christians bring children into the world who they know will be sinners, yet we still give birth to them. We know that they have a purpose and can bring glory even if in the end they reject Him.
David didn’t create himself God created Him. So even though the faith is Davids own faith, it is also and expression of who God created David to be. This is different to the blessings of growing up in a Christian family etc – three are plenty of examples where brothers and sisters grow up in a Christian home some reject Christ while some accept. Their different responses are due to the fact that God created them as different people. Each makes up their own mind but it will always be a mind that God created for them.
If that was the case then God really didn’t make us in His image. It would mean that we did not have a will as God has but a programmed response. And if we all have a programmed response, then it is nothing more than a game and God is not the good God that He claims to be since He purposely programs people to sin against Him and then delights to judge them for what He has programmed them to do.
The only way that any of this makes any sense is for God to have made a creation like Him with a will and choices and an ability to love without coercion or pre-programming. It is this kind of creation that gives God glory. A pre-programmed variety would only say speak about a God that was a master manipulator and who was afraid to create anyone in His image with a real will and a real choice. It would speak of fear more than Sovereignty. In fact that is what the serpent hinted at in the garden. That humans could be like God but God was fearful and jealous that they might be like Him so He deliberately limited their choices.
But the God of the Bible reveals Himself as one is prepared for every choice we make so that our decisions are intimately known. He sent the merchants to the area where Joseph’s brothers were long before the brothers arrived on the scene. Nothing is out of God’s ability to bring glory and honor to His name – even our free will choices.
What do you see is the difference between believers and non believers? To phrase it another way why do you believe some have faith while others do not?
That’s an excellent question and I believe the Bible gives us the answer.
John 3:19 (NASB)
19 “This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil.
There are those people who love their sin so much that they refuse to allow God to shine a light on that sin and they reject God rather than give up their sin and their idols.
I have witnessed to a man for several years concerning coming to faith in Christ. He loves to be around Christians and he attends Christian functions but he refuses to become a Christian. He told me that he has no love for Jesus and can’t see that he needs a savior. The real struggle that he has is that he is a homosexual and he knows that he would have to give up this love of his to come to God. He is unwilling to do that.
So I believe that it is a love of sin that causes people to turn away from God. I also believe that fear stops people from coming to Christ. These people are more afraid of man than they are of God so they don’t come to Jesus because of the stigma that being a Christian would give them.
The book of Revelation talks about those who go to hell are “cowardly”.
Revelation 21:8 (NASB)
8 “But for the cowardly and unbelieving and abominable and murderers and immoral persons and sorcerers and idolaters and all liars, their part will be in the lake that burns with fire and brimstone, which is the second death.”I believe that cowardly refers to choosing he fear of man rather than the fear of God.
Thanks for your comments about the environment here. I have been to blogs where they shut down comments and either discouraged dialog or berated people for having a belief that is not the same as the blog host and thus challenges were not allowed. I believe that the healthy way is to allow challenges and to encourage questions. All of us can learn including me. And I am so happy that the people who come here are willing to challenge, question and learn.
Thanks for your participation Mark on our dialog on John 6.
We did start with a little bit from John 5 to set the stage. You mentioned that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus because he broke the Sabbath and He claimed to be equal with God. That is a good addition.
There are several other things about the Jewsh Pharisees that showed why they hated Jesus. Jesus tells us. The conversations with these Jews that should be noted are also in John 5 & John 8. Here is what we know about them:
1. They cannot hear Jesus’ Word because they are of their father the devil and as sons of the devil they want to do the devil’s work. He was a murderer from the beginning and they too want to murder. And because they are of the devil they cannot hear or understand Jesus’ words.
John 8:43–44 (NASB)
43 “Why do you not understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot hear My word.
44 “You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies.
2. They were ones who do evil and hate the Light. They were unwilling to come to the Light for fear that their deeds would be exposed.
John 3:19–21 (NASB)
19 “This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil.
20 “For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed.
21 “But he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God.”
John 5:40 (NASB)
40 and you are unwilling to come to Me so that you may have life.
3. They were not from God.
John 8:42 Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love Me, for I proceeded forth and have come from God, for I have not even come on My own initiative, but He sent Me.
John 8:47 “He who is of God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you are not of God.”
4. They are not seekers of God’s glory but they seek glory from man
John 8:44 “How can you believe, when you receive glory from one another and you do not seek the glory that is from the one and only God?
5. They did not believe God’s Word
John 8:46 “For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he wrote about Me.
6. They were not of the truth because all who would not listen to Jesus are not of the truth according to Jesus’ testimony.
John 18:37 (NASB)
37 Therefore Pilate said to Him, “So You are a king?” Jesus answered, “You say correctly that I am a king. For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, to testify to the truth. Everyone who is of the truth hears My voice.”
7. Because of all of the things that are said about these Jews in John, we can know that Romans 3 applies to these men:
Romans 3:10–18 (NASB)
10 as it is written,
“THERE IS NONE RIGHTEOUS, NOT EVEN ONE;
11 THERE IS NONE WHO UNDERSTANDS,
THERE IS NONE WHO SEEKS FOR GOD;
12 ALL HAVE TURNED ASIDE, TOGETHER THEY HAVE BECOME USELESS;
THERE IS NONE WHO DOES GOOD,
THERE IS NOT EVEN ONE.”
13 “THEIR THROAT IS AN OPEN GRAVE,
WITH THEIR TONGUES THEY KEEP DECEIVING,”
“THE POISON OF ASPS IS UNDER THEIR LIPS”;
14 “WHOSE MOUTH IS FULL OF CURSING AND BITTERNESS”;
15 “THEIR FEET ARE SWIFT TO SHED BLOOD,
16 DESTRUCTION AND MISERY ARE IN THEIR PATHS,
17 AND THE PATH OF PEACE THEY HAVE NOT KNOWN.”
18 “THERE IS NO FEAR OF GOD BEFORE THEIR EYES.”
They are of the ones who do not seek God, they are not righteous but are evil, they do not understand, their feet are swift to shed blood, they do not know the path of peace and there is no fear of God in them and because of of this, destruction is in their path.
Yet even with all of this terrible stuff said about the Jewish Pharisees, Jesus still said that the words He was saying were said so that they may be saved.
John 5:34 (NASB)
34 “But the testimony which I receive is not from man, but I say these things so that you may be saved.
The will of God was for the Jews to repent and to believe Jesus so that they could be saved.
Mark, your words about John 5:39-47 were good. The one point of contention is this:
However i reject Cheryl’s point that these Jews have no ‘fear’ of God. THis is not in the text anywhere.
While it is not directly said in the text, the things said about these Jews match up exactly with what is said of those who do not hear God, do not seek for Him, whose works are evil, who do not understand and who are murderers and do not fear God. Romans 3:10-18 fits them to a tee.
If you still believe that these Jews were ones who feared God, it would be helpful to show from the text where this fear of God showed up.
Mark, you said:
These Jews were pious and religious. They searched the scriptures looking for eternal life.
They may have been pious, but they didn’t believe the Scriptures that they were searching and their pious outside was called a white washed tomb by Jesus.
Matthew 23:27 (NASB)
27 “Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you are like whitewashed tombs which on the outside appear beautiful, but inside they are full of dead men’s bones and all uncleanness.
Under John 6, you said:
Verse 1- ’some time after this’ is indefinate. This means that the events of Chapter 6 may or may not have happened immediately after chapter 5. Some commentator think it could be as much as 6 months, but that is a side issue.
The preposition that joins the dialog of Jesus with the Jews in chapter 5 with the events of chapter 6 most certainly is joined together because the Greek word that is used to join the two means:
- marker of attendant circumstances of someth. that takes place, with
Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed.) (637).
It is a an attendant circumstance that follows and so we can confidently know that what happened in chapter 6 is going to be related to the attendant circumstances of chapter 5.
You also said:
What is important to note is the ‘crowd’ is not the same Jews addressed in chapter 5. We know this because the Jews of chapter 5 did not recognise Jesus authority.
But there are two groups in chapter 6. The first group is the “crowd” that was following Jesus because of the miracles. The second group shows up in verse 41 as having problems with Jesus. They are not called the crowd but “the Jews”.
You said:
The crowd of 6:1-15 however were different.
Yes, the crowd of verses 1 – 15 were not the Pharisees who had challenged Jesus.
You said:
It seems evcident that the ‘crowd’ is looking for a new ‘Moses’ to deliver them from the Roman bondage. This seems true once we see the reaction of the people post miracle and Jesus response.
Yes, good work.
You said:
The mention of ‘passover’ is theological not chronological.
I am not sure I understand you. Are you saying that the Passover that was said to be near in verse 4 is really not a proper passover?
John 6:4 (NASB)
4 Now the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was near.
Mark, you said:
I’m a bit concerned about your 7 points. None of your references mention at all that the Jews did not fear God. You are bringing that into the text.
I am actually quite shocked that you would contradict this point. After all you were the one who said that Romans 3:10-18 applied to all unsaved people so that all people (except those who are “born again”) do not seek for God, none of them does good and none fears God. Now you are trying to say that this passage does not apply to the Pharisees? Common now. What is making you afraid to agree that the Romans 3 passage applies to the Jews who wanted to kill Jesus?
I very carefully went through the passage to show that the Jewish Pharisees were not seeking God, they were not righteous but evil, they did not understand, their feet were swift to shed blood, they did not know the path of peace and thus there could be no fear of God in them.
Now, Mark, my friend, if you are going to say that Romans 3:10-18 does not apply to the Jewish Pharisees, then how is it that you are maintaining that all unsaved people are included in the passage except for the Jewish Pharisees? Huh?
I am especially concerned about point 7.
You conclude that your points 1-6, therefore show that Romans 3:10-18 applies to them. On the contrary Paul is writing to the Roman Church, a group of Christians. I cannot agree with you on that point. You cannot take Jesus words applied to the Pharisees and scribes and interpolate that into Romans 3.
Oh dear, are you now trying to say that Romans 3:10-18 only applies to Christians? That it is Christians who do not seek for God, Christians who do not do good and Christians who do not fear God?
Now i do not believe the pharisees were ‘God fearers’ in the sense that we generally associate the word. I was simply disagreeing with your discription of them as non God fearers. We agree they were pious. They sought to uphold the sabbath
So you don’t believe that the Pharisees were “God fearers” but you do not agree with me that the Pharisees did not fear God?
Please explain yourself. It appears to me that you are contradicting yourself big-time.
So let’s settle this right now. Do you or do you not say that Romans 3 has Paul saying that no one seeks for God and no one fears God until one is born again? What say you? Are you going to be rethinking your disagreement with me on point #7?
They were zealous for the supremacy of God
Oh really? Then why is it that Jesus said that they did not believe God’s word? No they were not zealous for the supremacy of God. Rather they loved making rules for others that they didn’t keep and they loved to have others look up to them. But they were not zealous for God. Jesus said:
Matthew 23:2–4 (NASB)
2 saying: “The scribes and the Pharisees have seated themselves in the chair of Moses;
3 therefore all that they tell you, do and observe, but do not do according to their deeds; for they say things and do not do them.
4 “They tie up heavy burdens and lay them on men’s shoulders, but they themselves are unwilling to move them with so much as a finger.
You said:
They followed in the light of John the Baptist
5:35 ” He was a burning and ?shining lamp, and ?you were willing to rejoice for a while in his light. “
They rejoiced only because they wanted to be noticed and John drew a crowd so they were there, but they were not coming to the light. Jesus said:
Matthew 23:5 (NASB)
5 “But they do all their deeds to be noticed by men; for they broaden their phylacteries and lengthen the tassels of their garments.
Yes they came to John but they were not repentant.
Matthew 3:7–8 (NASB)
7 But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming for baptism, he said to them, “You brood of vipers, who warned you to flee from the wrath to come?
8 “Therefore bear fruit in keeping with repentance;
You said:
They also searched the scriptures for eternal life (5:39). I do not think we can rightly label these men as those who “have no fear of God”.
They are not searching the Scriptures to learn what God has to say. They didn’t believe God. Jesus said:
John 5:39 (NASB) “You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; it is these that testify about Me;
The grammar here is present tense. They are searching the Scriptures ” because” they think they already have eternal life right now. Check out the grammar for yourself. They were not looking to get eternal life in the future. They believed they had it. After all they thought all they needed was to be children of Abraham. No, Jesus did not say that the Pharisees were looking to hear and learn from God. They weren’t. They were proud and self-righteous and they did not fear God.
Also since we are looking at John 6 can we stay with that text and keep to it’s context.
It is important to the context to know why the Pharisees did not come to Jesus since John 6 reveals that they were not followers of Jesus. This is where the Scripture’s revelation of who and what the Pharisees were will help us understand the passage better. I won’t be going outside the passage unless it directly corrolates to John 6.
Now the crowd was another story. They were not the same as the Jewish Pharisees.
What i mean by the ‘passover’ being theological is that the context of the passage parallels with Moses. Jesus is the bread of life parallel to the bread in the desert.
Okay. Sure, I agree with that too. However the Passover that is first mentioned in verse 4 is the actual event. Just so that we can agree on that too.
Basically what i mean is that there is deep theology behind the narrative, so the passover is theological not only primarily chronological.
Yes there is deep theology behind the narrative. But the passover that was mentioned in verse 4 was the actual passover celebration and this is what made the backdrop of Jesus’ words so powerful.
no problems with what you have said, but i would like to add one more thing. THe crowd is 5000 ‘men’. Now presumably there were women and childern aswell, so it was a substantial number to feed.
Yes, this is a good point. It was a very large crowed of people with many more than 5,000 there when we include the women and children.
THe 12 baskets emphasise that the miracle provided ‘more than enough’ food for everyone.
Yes, excellent point.
Jesus knew their intentions so he withdrew by himself. The detail of ‘by himself’ becomes important futher into the passage.
I will comment on this shortly in my next comment.
P.S- in the coming weeks i may be slow to respond, as we are expecting our 3rd baby in a week or so. Please bare with me.
How wonderful! Congratulations, Mark! Looks like you will have your hands full. We will just go at the pace that we can both handle responding. If either one of us is not able to respond for days or longer, neither will think that we have left the discussion, agreed?
I hope that you will keep us all informed when the blessed day arrives. Please give my regards to your wife.
Kay,
That is also very good news for you about your move. It is nice to be near grandchildren and I am sure that this move will be a welcome one. I hope that your move goes well!
Kay
“Why do you assume that Paul’s phrase ” all israel is not israel” could only be refering to individuals and not groups?”
Because that is the only thing that makes sense. What ‘groups’ within national Israel was Paul therefore addressing? What did his OT quotes have to do with these other ‘groups’? Since you did not supply an alternative, it is clear that there isn’t one. From the wider context it is clear Paul is addressing the ‘remnant’ which theologically are those individuals who have been saved and are saved.
“True, but gentile persons could convert to Judaism (ie. Ruth or Ex.12:48-49) and be in the covenant group.”
I agree. But you have not dealt with the issue. You think it is ‘unfair’ for God to elect individuals but not nations. Both views create ‘unfairness’ regardless of whether people could ‘convert’ to Judaism. Thousands upon thousands would not have had that opportunity to ‘convert’. Did the nations have that choice when God wiped them out so that Israel could enter the ‘promised land’?
“If it is so clearly about individual election, then what part of “the older will serve the younger” has anything to do with eternal salvation? Why would this part need to be included?”
Paul’s argument is not to show how Esau served Jacob, but rather how ‘unconditionally’ God chose Jacob over Esau while they were still in the womb- before either had done anything good or bad. Paul’s point is unconditionally election!
“But, Mark God didn’t do this unconditionally. The Edomites, descendents of Esau, were “hated”, *BecausE* of their *wickedness*.”
Kay, this is completely wrong. The edomites were the descendents of Esau. What does Paul say in Romans about Esau and Jacob.
“Rom 9:11 though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad–in order that God’s purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls—“
Here we see clearly that Jacob is chosen unconditionally before they were born. Paul is very precise to include that it is not ‘because of works’. So your hypothesis that God chose the Israelites (Jacob) because the Edomites (Esau) were wicked is simply false and contradictory to Rom 9. Yes the Edomites were ‘hated’ because of their wickedness (since God hates all wickedness), but God’s unconditional election of Jacob over Esau had nothing to do with works and was determined before they were even born or had their ‘nations’.
Kay, people try over and over again to change the meaning of Romans 9, but it simply cannot be done. Our job is to believe what the bible teaches, not what we think or want the bible to teach. Let me encourage you to look at the passage exegetically. In my experience i rejected reformed theology, but after I studied this text my arminianism was shattered. My arminian theology simply could not hold up under the pressure of Romans 9-11. We must be faithful as bible believing people to accept it’s teaching.
Mark,
You said to Kay:
Let me encourage you to look at the passage exegetically. In my experience i rejected reformed theology, but after I studied this text my arminianism was shattered. My arminian theology simply could not hold up under the pressure of Romans 9-11. We must be faithful as bible believing people to accept it’s teaching.
I am able to can see both sides but after working through Romans exegetically, my faith has been strengthened by the amazing message of Paul and Calvinism has been shattered in front of my eyes because of that. Perhaps some day we can go through the passage together and I can show you what you missed. What I feel sad about is that so many reject their first Biblical roots to go after Calvinism without reading an apologetic for non-Calvinism that deals with the passages in context. It seems to me that for the most part once one has “found” Calvinism, the mind shuts down to anything that might contradict Calvinism.
In a former church where I attended it was so bad that no one was allowed to even quote a verse that appeared to contradict Calvinism and we could no longer mention man’s free will even in our prayers. The control that happened once Calvinism came in was difficult and unbending. I am glad that we have some Calvinists here who are willing to dialog in an open fashion. It doesn’t happen very often without the Calvinist getting mad and leaving, in my experience. I have often wondered why. I have come to the conclusion that Calvinism is like a security blanket for them that makes them special as well as safe in the fold and they don’t tolerate anyone pulling at their safety blanket.
But here we are willing to make our measurement of truth as the Bible itself with the inspired words and the inspired grammar in context so that we can allow it to speak for itself without forcing it into a theological pre-conceived box. I like that and hope that we have as much respect for God’s Word as we continue in John 6. It’s a great passage!
“Here we see clearly that Jacob is chosen unconditionally before they were born. Paul is very precise to include that it is not ‘because of works’. So your hypothesis that God chose the Israelites (Jacob) because the Edomites (Esau) were wicked is simply false and contradictory to Rom 9.”
Mark,
I agree that it is not because of “works.” But I believe it is also about claiming national ancestry as well. It appears you misunderstood my point – I was not claiming that God chose Israelites because the Edomites were wicked. Much later Edom was rejected because of their wickedness.
I agree, Paul has shown in Romans 1-8 the fallenness of both Jew and Gentile, and justification not by the “works of the law” (3:20) but rather by “faith in Jesus Christ” (3:22). He uses Abraham as an example of justification by faith (Paul explains, Abraham is pronounced righteous by God *before* ‘circumcision’), and the practical implications of justification by faith. Paul’s argument is nicely wrapped up at the end of ch.8, except for establishing the relationship between “justification by faith in Christ” and the historic relationship God has had with ethnic Israel. Even though Paul represents justification by faith not as a novelty but as something that began with Abraham, that does not answer the question of why God had related to His people Israel primarily on the basis of their descent from Abraham and on their keeping of the Law. The Jews, who had not been coming in great numbers to Christ, may well argue that if Paul’s doctrine of justification by faith were true, then God would have essentially broken His promises to Israel. If Israel sees inclusion in the covenant as based on descent from Abraham and keeping the Law, then how can God turn around and say, “No, inclusion in the covenant is not based on descent from Abraham or keeping the Law, but rather on faith in Christ”? It would seem to them that God’s word had failed (v.6), which is just what Paul is at pains to dispute.
In short, Paul’s line of argument in Romans 9-11 is intended to answer the specific charge that if the Gospel were true, God’s word would have failed regarding Israel. Many readers of this passage seem to keep this emphasis in mind only for a few verses, but in fact this charge is the primary position against which Paul is writing throughout the three chapters.
It is the essential position of the “questioner” that Paul invokes in 9:19-20, and is implied in several other verses (9:6, 16, 32). Remember, in chapter 3, Paul has already demolished the possible contention that Jews can rely on keeping the Law; however, Jews may still be relying on their descent from Abraham as indicating their inclusion in the covenant community. After all, the Old Testament promises regarding the restoration of Israel are not contingent upon perfect obedience to the Law; in some ways, it appears that adherence to the Law is actually one of the promises to be fulfilled (Jer. 31:33). So, if Paul says that justification is by faith in Christ, and if this standard ends up excluding the majority of Jews, who have not come to faith in Christ, then he seems to void God’s promises to Israel.
Paul’s response is simply to demonstrate that God never chose descendants of Abraham, merely as descendants of Abraham, for inclusion in the covenant community. This is clear because not all the descendants of Abraham were included, but only the descendants of Isaac, and then of Jacob. In other words, the attrition that occurs with the generations of Isaac and Jacob does not stop there, but progresses throughout the descendants of Israel. It is in this sense that “not all who are descended from Israel are Israel” (9:6).
In Rom.9:7, Paul quotes Gen. 21:12 to explain that, even before Isaac was born, God had determined that Abraham’s offspring would be “reckoned” through Isaac. The original context of this passage, God reassures Abraham in the very next verse (Gen. 21:13) that “I will make the son of the maidservant into a nation also, because he is your offspring.” In the following verses we read that “God heard the boy [Ishmael] crying …. ‘I will make him into a great nation’ …. God was with the boy as he grew up” (Gen. 21:17-18, 20). In other words, God has a positive plan for Ishmael and his descendants as well as for Isaac and his descendants; it is only as a member of the covenant nation that will bring forth the Messiah Ishmael is rejected.
Paul, significantly, interprets the quotation by stating that “it is not the natural children who are God’s children, but it is the children of the promise who are regarded as Abraham’s offspring” (v. 8). He is subtly doing here what he does clearly in Galatians 4:21-31: he identifies ethnic Israel with the children of Hagar, as opposed to those of Sarah. Since ethnic Israel is depending on natural descent from Abraham, they are identified with Ishmael, who was Abraham’s descendant (not to mention the firstborn). The Christians, trusting that “those who believe are children of Abraham” (Gal. 3:7), are identified with Isaac, the child of promise. In Romans 9:8, Paul quotes Gen. 18:10, 14 to establish that the promise had indeed occurred before Isaac’s conception.
Paul’s use of Isaac and Ishmael is not primarily intended to be a statement of their individual eternal election, nor to be typical of the elect and reprobate. It rather establishes that the Jewish people have no reason to trust in their *physical descent* from Abraham to guarantee inclusion in the covenant – if they could, then the descendants of Ishmael would have just as much right to claim as could the descendants of Isaac.
In case the Jews argue that Isaac was the legitimate son, as opposed to the illegitimate, Paul moves down to the next generation to find an even more compelling example, that of Jacob and Esau (9:10-13). These even have the same set of parents, and were born together as twins. The only natural primacy that one would have over the other would have been the birthright, which would have gone to Esau. And yet, before they were born, Rebekah was told that “the older will serve the younger” (9:12, quoting Gen. 25:23). Paul even states that the reason God told Rebekah this was “in order that God’s purpose in election might stand” (v. 11).
Paul means to exclude personal merit from consideration of Jacob and Esau’s election. Such election is “not by works, but by him who calls.” God was perfectly free to choose either Jacob or Esau.
But I contend the choice doesn’t involve individual “election” for personal salvation or damnation, but rather the line through which the covenant people will come. Gen. 25:23, which Paul quotes, clearly refers to nations, not individuals:
“Two nations are in your womb,
and two peoples from within you will be separated;
one people will be stronger than the other,
and the older will serve the younger.”
What is the subject? Individuals or nations?
So,“Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated” (Rom. 9:13, quoting Mal. 1:2-3) looking at the source of the quote in context clearly shows that the *nations* are being referenced, not individual Jacob and Esau.
The point of comparison lies in the nature of the land that was given to the two nations. God had given preference to Jacob in the land that He gave to Israel. Malachi goes on to discuss the fact that Edom had come under such judgment that it would never be able to rebuild its land; but was this a foregone conclusion from before Jacob and Esau were born? It seems not to be. Deut. 2:4-6 suggests the opposite. God did not allow the Israelites to attack Edom or to take any portion of their land, stating that “I have given Esau the hill country of Seir as his own. You are to pay them in silver for the food you eat and the water you drink.” This hardly seems consistent with a people whom God “hated.”
It seems that “loved” and “hated” in Malachi 1 and Romans 9 are to be understood that God had given preference to Jacob over Esau, in terms of the land received by their respective descendants, and in terms of whose line would comprise the covenant ‘nation’.
If you want to argue that “Jacob I loved but Esau I hated” *must* refer to election for salvation, how do you account for the fact that this statement first appears, not in Genesis, but about 1000 years later in Malachi?
Do you contend that all of Israel in Malachi’s time are saved?
In fact, God indicts Israel throughout the rest of Malachi specifically because they have been “unfaithful” to the covenant and have broken faith with God in many ways. Rather than being a pleasant assurance of God’s favor, the statement, “Jacob I loved but Esau I hated,” forms part of God’s indictment—that even though God had chosen to work through Israel, nevertheless Israel had been unfaithful, and was under judgment.
Paul uses these quotations to oppose those Jews who would say that, if the Gospel were correct, then “God’s word had failed” (9:6). His response to them is that God had never made the unconditional promises, based either on “works” or *ethnicity*, that they were claiming. God sovereignly chose Isaac over Ishmael; He sovereignly chose Jacob over Esau; and by implication, He can sovereignly choose on the *basis* of “faith in Christ”, as opposed to works of the law or ethnicity. To the Jewish questioner, God’s apparent change (from law and ethnicity to faith) would appear to be unjust (v.14).
Notice that this interpretation of Paul’s argument makes perfect sense of the Jewish questioner’s sense of injustice. No Jew would see injustice in God’s gratuitous election of Isaac over Ishmael or Jacob over Esau as individuals. The only thing about the argument that would have caused them to view God as unjust is the implication that “not all who are descended from Israel are Israel” (9:6), and for Paul, of course, to be a true descendant of Abraham was to follow him in faith (4:11-12, Gal. 3:7-8). And this is just what Paul’s point is. Hopefully, I have been thorough enough this time that you can see my point.
continuing on…
Joh 6:26 Jesus answered them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, you are seeking me, not because you saw signs, but because you ate your fill of the loaves.
Joh 6:27 Do not labor for the food that perishes, but for the food that endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give to you. For on him God the Father has set his seal.”
Joh 6:28 Then they said to him, “What must we do, to be doing the works of God?”
Joh 6:29 Jesus answered them, “This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent.”
Joh 6:30 So they said to him, “Then what sign do you do, that we may see and believe you? What work do you perform?
Verses 26-30 ought to understood around two key themes, 1. ‘works’ and 2. ‘bread’ (or food).
Verse 26. Rather than Jesus giving an answer to the question of verse 25, He goes straight to the heart of the matter literally. He exposes the heart of the crowd. Although they followed him because of the signs (6:2), it was purely a physical and selfish reason- to be fed. They had failed to the see the ‘spiritual’ dimension of Jesus works as the Messiah.
Verse 27. Jesus gives a command (a present imperative) ‘Stop working’ for the wrong food. He tells them to labor for the eternal food. Note also that this food is a gift ‘given’ by the Son of Man as well as the eternal life. Both the ‘food’ and ‘eternal life’ are in the feminine. The ‘which’ likewise is in the feminine, linking the food and life to the ‘gift’ that the Son of Man will give.
Vers 28. The crowd in the stupidity miss what Jesus has said. They think Jesus intentions are some ‘works’ (works of the Law) which can give them eternal life.
Verse 29. Jesus corrects them by saying there is only one ‘work’ and that is to believe in the Son of Man. We should not understand here that Jesus is promoting a ‘work’ based salvation contrary to the teaching of the rest of the New Testament. It is clear throughout the teaching of Jesus in John that salvation is entirely by grace (1:13,17,29; 3:3, 5, 16) just to name a few. We need to understand the context of how the crowd has misunderstood Jesus command to stop ‘working’ for the wrong food in verse 27. But also note that this does not mean that salvation is not conditional on one believing in the saving work of Jesus. Here it is clear that to be saved one must believe. However it would be wrong here to forget that the act of faith is itself the gift of God (Eph 2:8-9, John 6:44, Romans 12:3)
Also note that Jesus has been sent by the Father. The ‘he’ is emphatic showing it is none other that God the Father who sent his son (3:16)
Verse 30. The stupidity of the crowd is highlighted as they ask for another ‘work’ so that they may believe. You would think they have seen enough would you not? But this inability to believe will be further highlighted in the passage, since none can actually come to the Father unless he enables them (6:65)
Mark,
I would like to add some comments to your exegesis of John 6:26-30 because you missed some things.
John 6:25–26 (NASB)
25 When they found Him on the other side of the sea, they said to Him, “Rabbi, when did You get here?”
26 Jesus answered them and said, “Truly, truly, I say to you, you seek Me, not because you saw signs, but because you ate of the loaves and were filled.
When the crowd finally found Jesus and they ask Him when he arrived, Jesus focuses in on the fact that they are indeed seeking Him. Jesus uses the term “Truly, truly” which means “Amen, amen”. It is used with “I say” to give a very strong affirmation of what is stated. The Analytical lexicon defines it this way:
2) used with lego (say) to emphasize that what is being said is a solemn declaration of what is true
Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker’s Greek New Testament library (46).
So Jesus is giving a solemn declaration that we are to pay attention to. He is saying that the crowd was indeed seeking Him but not because of the signs or miracles. The term for “seek” means to devote serious effort to realize one’s desire or objective, strive for, aim (at), try to obtain.
The crowd’s seeking Jesus was actually a desire to seek to obtain the free bread. Next Jesus tells them what they are to work for.
John 6:27 (NASB) “Do not work for the food which perishes, but for the food which endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give to you, for on Him the Father, God, has set His seal.”
Jesus makes a link between the serious effort that they went to in seeking Him (Jesus calls it “work” as they had come a long way across the sea to get into the free food line). He tells them instead to “work” or put in the effort for the food which is everlasting which He will give to them. They were commanded to make an effort. The term for “work” means to engage in activity that involves effort, work. (Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed.) (389)
This was not a new command but something that Jesus had said before in Luke 13:24
Luke 13:24 (NASB) “Strive to enter through the narrow door; for many, I tell you, will seek to enter and will not be able.
To strive means to fight, struggle, labor. Thus Jesus means to fight and struggle to enter through the narrow door…and struggling for this eternal food that I will give you is worth your effort.
Next Jesus said in John 6:27 that the Father had set “His seal” upon Jesus. Setting a seal upon something is providing a seal as a security measure. It is the ultimate power given to the Son of imparting eternal life that will never perish.
When Jesus told the crowd that they must diligently strive for the eternal food that He will give them, they were compelled to ask what it is that they must do to diligently strive for the works of God.
John 6:28 (NASB)
28 Therefore they said to Him, “What shall we do, so that we may work the works of God?”
The crowd is thinking that there are many works (plural) that they would have to do to obtain eternal life. But Jesus give them one effort as it is just one work that is necessary.
John 6:29 (NASB) Jesus answered and said to them, “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent.”
The activity that they were to strive for was to “believe” in Jesus whom God had sent. As you said, Mark, the crowd did not just believe Jesus by the works He had already performed, they asked for a sign that they could see and believe. They asked Jesus for a “work”.
Next comment will be going on to the next verses.
Mark you said:
Mark,
Thanks once again for taking the time to work with me through this passage. I think this is extremely helpful in working towards a clear word in the Scripture, but I think it is also helpful for others to see that we can dialog in a respectful manner.
You said:
First of all, I agree that when Jesus give’s his body on the cross- that is the atonement. The question in view though, is whether this text is referring to the atonement or eternal life. Look again at the verse
Joh 6:33 For the bread of God is he who comes down from heaven and gives life to the world.”
This text does not talk about Jesus ‘flesh’. It is dealing with Jesus coming down from heaven to give ‘life’. Now clearly in the context this is dealing with eternal life!
I agree that it is eternal life but only through the death of Jesus. You cannot separate the two for there is no eternal life without the death of Jesus. I gave you the verse where Jesus said that if the seed does not die, it remains alone. Why is that if eternal life comes as something that is apart from Jesus’ death? Jesus repeats the same words in John 6:51 and the eternal life is clearly His flesh that He gives for the world. Are you saying that John 6:33 and John 6:51 are not talking about the same thing?
John 6:51 (NASB) “I am the living bread that came down out of heaven; if anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever; and the bread also which I will give for the life of the world is My flesh.”
Where do you find eternal life in the Scripture that is apart from the death of Jesus?
So is Jesus saying he came down from heaven to give eternal life to every single person- of course not! Clearly ‘world’ should not be understood universally.
And why not? Shouldn’t we come to the Scriptures and see what they say without adding our own presuppositions to them? I have no problem with Jesus’ words. Why do you?
Remember that Jesus said “Amen, amen” which is a solemn declaration. Why would Jesus give a solemn declaration that he came to give His flesh and give eternal life to the world and then that not be true? Surely if Jesus meant something else He would have said something else. Can you explain why Jesus picked this particular word “world” to express a declaration of truth but meant something else?
How is it that the Samaritans understood that the coming one was to be the Savior of the world in John 4:42? This is very important. Were they also misled by the testimony about Jesus?
John 4:42 (NASB)
42 and they were saying to the woman, “It is no longer because of what you said that we believe, for we have heard for ourselves and know that this One is indeed the Savior of the world.”
Why did they call Him the Savior of the world? You didn’t answer these questions. Were you planning to try to answer or were you planning to just set this issue aside because you don’t have an answer? If you don’t want to answer, I won’t force you to. But I would encourage you to try. It is worth the effort to dig deep into the inspired words and the inspired grammar of the passage.
Eternal life does indeed come through the atonement, but again the verse is dealing with the ‘life’ aspect. Jesus did not give ‘life’ to every single person because Jesus did not ‘atone’ for every person.
Again, this is your presupposition, but the text does not say that Jesus was going to give His life for only a select few.
I have simply stated what the text saids and that ‘world’ should not be understood universally.
Again show your position from the text. You cannot just say that although the text says “world”, it doesn’t really mean the whole world. Please explain what it does mean, not what it does not mean. And please explain how those hearing Jesus speak would have understood what world meant when He said it. Thanks!
It is you who is substituting ‘life’ for ‘atonement’, when the text and the context is clearly dealing with eternal life not with the atonement.
The text says that eternal life is Jesus’ flesh that He gives for the world. That is clearly what the text says. How does Jesus’ flesh give eternal life except for His death and resurrection?
Please deal with the term ‘life’ first and foremost.
Sure. Jesus’ “life” that He gives for the world is His flesh given as a ransom sacrifice on the cross. Colossians 1:22 says that we are reconciled (we have eternal life) in His fleshly body through death.
Colossians 1:22 (NASB)
22 yet He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach—
What Scripture are you going to quote that shows we have life in His body apart from His death?
Then tell me whether Jesus came to give ‘life’ eternally to every single human. Yes or No- here is your chance- Did Jesus give life eternally for the world? This is what you need to address not going off in tangents about ‘responses’.
Yes. Jesus came to give eternal life to every single human. This was a real offer. But it must be accepted by faith.
Let’s look again at the text.
John 6:34–35 (NASB)
34 Then they said to Him, “Lord, always give us this bread.”
35 Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst.
The crowd asked for this bread. That is very clear from verse 34. Did Jesus respond by saying that He only gives this bread for a select few? Clearly when Jesus said that He came down from Heaven to give life to the world, they felt that they were qualified to receive this life. They asked for it. The question must be asked why they did not receive this life since they asked for the gift. Was their response good enough to receive eternal life or not?
This is exegetical dancing! First you say ‘many to not have life’ (limited) and then that Jesus gives ‘life’ to the world (universal). You are using ‘life’ to mean two completely different things. The first about eternal life, the second about the atonement.
No I am not. There is no eternal life without the death of Jesus. The atonement is eternal life through the death of Jesus. Just for emphasis I will quote it one more time that our reconciliation and our receiving eternal life is only through the death of Jesus.
Colossians 1:22 (NASB)
22 yet He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach—
Receiving eternal life is being reconciled to God. If you believe that one can have that reconciliation with eternal life given without the atonement, please show me this clearly from the text.
The passage is only dealing with one life- eternal life.
That is right, but eternal life is not presented as Jesus’ flesh given in any other way than through His death. Jesus is qualifying throughout the passage that it is His flesh that is given for the gift of eternal life. Since verses 33 and 51 are a repetition, where do you find eternal life in this passage without Jesus’ death? Does your Calvinist faith require you to see eternal life as separate from Jesus’ death, or is this your own preconceived idea that would not necessarily be taught by Calvinism?
See again how you have included ‘but God requires a response’. Again this is not in the text above.
Actually it is in the text in verses 29 and 40.
John 6:29 (NASB)
29 Jesus answered and said to them, “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent.”
Jesus said that there was something that they needed to do. The act that was required as the response to beholding the Son is believing.
John 6:40 (NASB)
40 “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.”
Believing is never demanded before God’s revelation. Here it is the response to God’s documented revelation of His Son.
You either have to say that Jesus gives ‘life’ (eternal) to the world (everyone) or that ‘world’ is not meant to be understood universal.
Yes Jesus gives eternal life to everyone because it was His revealed will that He came down from heaven to give life to the world. It is meant to be universal. If it is not universal then Jesus did not tell the truth since Jesus never said that He came to give life to a select few. The term “world” is never used for a handpicked select few. John uses the term in his gospel in a very universal way and this is also the way that the Samaritans understood it.
You can’t just include sub clauses into the text about responses. It is good though to see you confess how you limit the atonement- you limit it’s effectiveness to actually atone; where as I limit it’s application to the elect.
No I don’t limit the atonement. Jesus’ death atoned for everyone. But the atonement that was completed on the cross for everyone must also be responded to in faith. In the Scripture the sacrifice for atonement is always applied by the sprinkling of the blood. The atonement is complete and the blood of the atonement must be applied by faith. I never said that I limit the atonement as if the atonement was not completed on the cross. It was.
Let me summarise. The text in question is only dealing with eternal life. Any thing introduced about ‘responses’ is foreign to the text. Jesus claims that he has come to ‘give life to the world’. There are only 2 options to take- universalism, or mine since the text is dealing with eternal life.
Let me summarize. The text in question is about the flesh of Jesus given through death to fulfill the gift of eternal life. Both John 6:51 and Colossians 1:22 show that our salvation which is our reconciliation with God is accomplished through the body of Jesus through his death. There isn’t any other way for Jesus to give his flesh for the world except through His death on the cross.
It is also worth quoting from two Calvinist sources who also say that same thing as I am saying:
6:51 This pronouncement exactly reiterates vv. 33, 35, 47, 48. My flesh, which I shall give for the life of the world. Jesus refers here prophetically to His impending sacrifice upon the cross (cf. 2 Cor. 5:21; 1 Pet. 2:24). Jesus voluntarily laid down His life for evil, sinful mankind (10:18; 1 John 2:2).
MacArthur, J. J. (1997). The MacArthur Study(i) the “living bread” has descended from heaven, i.e., he is the Incarnate One who has life in himself for others (cf. 5:26); (ii) the “bread” is the flesh of the Incarnate One which he is to give on behalf of the life of the world, i.e., he is to die that the world may live.
The “bread” is defined as “flesh” rather than the “body,” almost certainly by reason of the Evangelist’s insistence that the Word became flesh (1:14). But the conjunction of the terms “give,” “flesh,” and “on behalf of” in v 51c strongly suggests a sacrificial death for the sake of others
Beasley-Murray, G. R. (2002). Vol. 36: Word Biblical Commentary : John. Word Biblical Commentary (93–94). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.
Also there are not just 2 options to take – universalism or your way (by the way you have not yet shown what your way is since you have not shown what “world” means in the passage). There are 3 options. 1) universalism where Jesus paid the price for all and all are saved 2) your way (whatever that is) and 3) universal redemption that is completely paid for but the price is applied to our account only by responding in faith and this is God’s Sovereign plan for the sprinkling of the blood.
So theoretically, the pre-incarnate Jesus could have sent/given the Father to come and die on the cross. It was just by chance that the Father sent Jesus? Why did Jesus choose to come and not the Father or Spirit, since there are no ‘roles’?
The Father gave the Son but Jesus also “gave” Himself. The LORD of hosts in the one united will of the Godhead chose to come to die for us. It was a unanimous decision made by God Himself. It was not made by one person of the Godhead nor was it one will that was commanded toward another member of the Godhead. It was and always has been a unity of wills for a unity of decision. There is complete equality in the Trinity. The only time that one commands and the other obeys is in regard to the incarnation but commanding and obeying is never revealed as a be a part of the nature of the Trinity.
Mark,
Honestly, I didn’t know whether to laugh or to cry over your reply…that wasn’t the only point of agreement we had. Here are our quotes side by side:
————-
Mark – “Yes the Edomites were ‘hated’ because of their wickedness (since God hates all wickedness), but God’s unconditional election of Jacob over Esau had nothing to do with works and was determined before they were even born or had their ‘nations’.
Kay – “Paul even states that the reason God told Rebekah this was “in order that God’s purpose in election might stand” (v. 11).
Paul means to exclude personal merit from consideration of Jacob and Esau’s election. Such election is “not by works, but by him who calls.” God was perfectly free to choose either Jacob or Esau.”
Kay – “In Rom.9:7, Paul quotes Gen. 21:12 to explain that, even before Isaac was born, God had determined that Abraham’s offspring would be “reckoned” through Isaac. The original context of this passage, God reassures Abraham in the very next verse (Gen. 21:13) that “I will make the son of the maidservant into a nation also, because he is your offspring.” In the following verses we read that “God heard the boy [Ishmael] crying …. ‘I will make him into a great nation’ …. God was with the boy as he grew up”(Gen. 21:17-18, 20)
In Romans 9:8, Paul quotes Gen. 18:10, 14 to establish that the promise had indeed occurred before Isaac’s conception.
Paul’s use of Isaac and Ishmael is not primarily intended to be a statement of their individual eternal election, nor to be typical of the elect and reprobate. It rather establishes that the Jewish people have no reason to trust in their *physical descent* from Abraham to guarantee inclusion in the covenant”
Mark – “I think you need to go back to the end of chapter 8. Paul is clear there that nothing can seperate us from God. That is the lead in poin to chapters 9-11. Now if that statement is true, then what has happened with Israel the nation- it would appear that God is a liar because through Jesus he has seperated himself from the nation of Israel. This is where you are missing a vital ingredient.
With this in mind then one can understand Paul’s argument in chapter 9. God’s word has not failed because salvation was never granted to the nation of Israel, but only’true’ Israel- the children of the promise. Paul defines this clearer in Gal 3:29, where Abraham’s seed or children are those in Christ.”
Kay – “Notice that this interpretation of Paul’s argument makes perfect sense of the Jewish questioner’s sense of injustice. No Jew would see injustice in God’s gratuitous election of Isaac over Ishmael or Jacob over Esau . The only thing about the argument that would have caused them to view God as unjust is the implication that “not all who are descended from Israel are Israel” (9:6), and for Paul, of course, to be a true descendant of Abraham was to follow him in *”faith”* (4:11-12, Gal. 3:7-8).”
Kay – “Rather than being a pleasant assurance of God’s favor, the statement, “Jacob I loved but Esau I hated,” forms part of God’s indictment—that even though God had chosen to work through Israel, nevertheless Israel had been unfaithful, and was under judgment.
Paul uses these quotations to oppose those Jews who would say that, if the Gospel were correct, then “God’s word had failed” (9:6). His response to them is that God had never made the unconditional promises, based either on “works” or *ethnicity*, that they were claiming. God sovereignly chose Isaac over Ishmael; He sovereignly chose Jacob over Esau; and by implication, He can sovereignly choose on the *basis* of “faith in Christ”, as opposed to works of the law or ethnicity. To the Jewish questioner, God’s apparent change (from law and ethnicity to faith) would appear to be unjust (v.14).”
Mark – “Therefore when we read Israel in verse 6 this is clearly Pauls usage. Not all of his ‘brothers’ or ‘people’ are true Israel. True Israel are not the natural children of Abraham but the ‘children of the promise’. These children are the one’s who are considered Abraham’s children.”
Kay – “Paul has shown in Romans 1-8 the fallenness of both Jew and Gentile, and justification not by the “works of the law” (3:20) but rather by “faith in Jesus Christ” (3:22). He uses Abraham as an example of justification by faith (Paul explains, Abraham is pronounced righteous by God *before* ‘circumcision’), and the practical implications of justification by faith.”
Kay – “Paul’s response is simply to demonstrate that God never chose descendants of Abraham, merely as descendants of Abraham, for inclusion in the covenant community. This is clear because not all the descendants of Abraham were included, but only the descendants of Isaac, and then of Jacob.”
Mark – “Pauls argument in 9-11 is to show how God’s word has not failed because he has not seperated himself from ‘Israel’ (in the true sense). That is why i said to go back again to the again of chapter 8.”
Kay – “Paul uses these quotations to oppose those Jews who would say that, if the Gospel were correct, then “God’s word had failed” (9:6). His response to them is that God had never made the unconditional promises, based either on “works” or *ethnicity*, that they were claiming. God sovereignly chose Isaac over Ishmael; He sovereignly chose Jacob over Esau; and by implication, He can sovereignly choose on the *basis* of “faith in Christ”, as opposed to works of the law or ethnicity. To the Jewish questioner, God’s apparent change (from law and ethnicity to faith) would appear to be unjust (v.14).”
—————
So, it seems to me, that the problem you have with my view is not that my points are not valid – since many are the same as your’s – but that you don’t really have time to examine what I actually say to see the fact that I can come to them without calvinism(ie. #291 “I would love to write more but i’ve run out of time. Sorry”). Having time constraints myself, I really understand .
So, for now, it seems to me, more resonable and beneficial that you continue to carry on slowly with only the “John” discussion. And we can resume later, dv.
Mark,
You said:
People can only recieve eternal life by being reconciled in Christ. That is precisely why ‘life’ can only be ‘given’ to God’s elect, because only God’s elect have their sins ‘atoned’ for.
You keep saying that only a specific group of people can be given life and have their sins atoned. Where is your proof of this? Please show me one Scripture that says that Jesus died only for the elect. You cannot keep claiming that this is truth and then never prove it by the Scripture. If you can’t prove it, then you can just say “pass”, but you will need to stop claiming that Jesus died only for a select group.
Instead of a select group, in the passage that we are discussing Jesus gave His solemn declaration that He gives life to the “world”. If Jesus gave this witness, why should we not believe Him?
John 6:33 (NASB)
33 “For the bread of God is that which comes down out of heaven, and gives life to the world.”Your last lot of comments have diverged again. PLease stick with the verse in question. To show how you do this you asked me if i disagree with the ‘calvinists’ you quote, but neither of the quotes were dealing with the verse we are discussing.
Did you even read what I quoted? I am really concerned that you are only skimming and don’t bother to read. If you did read what was written, you would know the quote was about the verses that we are dealing with. Let’s take another look:
6:51 This pronouncement exactly reiterates vv. 33, 35, 47, 48. My flesh, which I shall give for the life of the world. Jesus refers here prophetically to His impending sacrifice upon the cross (cf. 2 Cor. 5:21; 1 Pet. 2:24). Jesus voluntarily laid down His life for evil, sinful mankind (10:18; 1 John 2:2).
MacArthur, J. J. (1997). The MacArthur Study(i) the “living bread” has descended from heaven, i.e., he is the Incarnate One who has life in himself for others (cf. 5:26); (ii) the “bread” is the flesh of the Incarnate One which he is to give on behalf of the life of the world, i.e., he is to die that the world may live.
The “bread” is defined as “flesh” rather than the “body,” almost certainly by reason of the Evangelist’s insistence that the Word became flesh (1:14). But the conjunction of the terms “give,” “flesh,” and “on behalf of” in v 51c strongly suggests a sacrificial death for the sake of others
Beasley-Murray, G. R. (2002). Vol. 36: Word Biblical Commentary : John. Word Biblical Commentary (93–94). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.
Both quotes refer to John 6:33 and 6:51. We had been talking about John 6:33 so the quotes are in context.
I is also interesting that I have two different Calvinist authors who agreeing that John 6:33, and John 6:51 are talking about Jesus giving his flesh as a sacrificial death on the cross. It is very apparent that the passage is not discussing the giving of life in a way that is outside of Jesus’ death. If these Calvinist theologians can agree that this is the case it shouldn’t be a problem for you as a Calvinist to also accept.
You are discussing ‘responses’, flesh and bread etc, none of which is dealing with the verse.
Verses 33 & 51 are speaking of the same thing and verse 51 gives further information on what the “bread” is. It is Jesus’ flesh given for the life of the world. So verse 33 which we were discussing is in context and it corresponds to verse 51 which is also in the context of John 6.
John 6:33 (NASB)
33 “For the bread of God is that which comes down out of heaven, and gives life to the world.”John 6:51 (NASB)
51 “I am the living bread that came down out of heaven; if anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever; and the bread also which I will give for the life of the world is My flesh.”
Also “believing” is a response to God since it is an action verb rather than passive. Therefore it is a response to God just as I said.
Perhaps we should stop and give some definitions for the words in question.
What is ‘life’? In the context Jesus is talking about eternal life.
‘Bread’- is ‘he’ or Jesus.
‘World’- has to mean God’s elect for the following reasons.
Okay let’s work with the definitions.
Life:
Life. (1) physical life (RO 8.38), opposite (death); (2) supernatural life, opposite (what is subject to dying) and (destruction, death), received by believers as a gift from God (JN 3.36; 1J 5.11), experienced both now (RO 6.4) and eternally (MK 10.30); (3) viewed as an attribute of God (1J 5.20) and Christ (JN 5.26b)
Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker’s Greek New Testament library (187).
I think that we can agree that it is eternal life that is the meaning in John 6:33.
World:
World. (1) adornment, adorning (1P 3.3); (2) as the sum total of all created beings in heaven and earth world, universe (AC 17.24); (3) as all human beings mankind, humanity, all people (MK 16.15); (4) as this planet inhabited by mankind world, earth (MT 16.26; JN 11.9); (5) morally, mankind as alienated from God, unredeemed and hostile to him world (1J 5.19); (6) sum total of particulars in any one field of experience, world, totality (JA 3.6)
Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker’s Greek New Testament library (235)
It is interesting that the term “world” has no reference to the elect.
Bread:
(1) bread, loaf of bread (MT 4.3); (2) by metonymy food, nourishment (LU 15.17)
Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker’s Greek New Testament library (76).
As far as the meaning of the bread, Jesus said “I am the bread of life…” John 6:35
There is no doubt that it is Jesus who is the bread that is referred to as the “bread of life”.
You said:
It cannot be universal unless you hold to a doctrine of universalism.
This is not true. Jesus can be the one who gives life to all without all being saved. It is because the atonement is accomplished by one payment (the death) and the application. This is consistent with every offering of atonement in the Bible.
Eternal life is not ‘given’ to everybody. You may think it is ‘offered’ but the text is not saying offered, it is saying ‘given’. Now is eternal life ‘given’ to everybody, yes or no? The Bible says an emphatic no!
Not true. The Bible says an emphastic “yes”! It is given to everyone. This is the key importance of the atonement – that it was a universal sacrifice that no man can ever blame God for not giving on his behalf. It is a “paid for” sacrifice that is “applied” by faith.
You can’t argue all you like about offers and sprinkling and all your other points, but that is not dealing with the verse. Do you believe that eternal life is given to every single person? Not offered but given as the verse says? The reality is, eternal life is only ‘given’ to those who trust in Christ- it is not given universally. So the only way to understand ‘world’ has to be in regards to those who trust in Christ- God’s elect.
Here is where you miss the boat. Eternal life is “given” to all but “received” by only a few.
In the same book, John makes this clear:
John 1:12 (NASB)
12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name,
Receiving Jesus (the sacrifice that was given) is receiving eternal life. John writes later in 1 John 5:12 that the one who has the Son has the life.
1 John 5:12 (NASB)
12 He who has the Son has the life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have the life.
Eternal life is given in the person of the Son and to the one who receives Him, God gives them the right to become children of God.
Now I would like to ask you some questions on these verses and this will be in my next comment.
Mark,
I will get to the last part of your comments the next time I can carve out some time away from my family. Thanks for your patience.
Mark you said:
regarding my exegesis you said…
” Jesus revealed in verse 33 that the bread of God (which is later revealed as His flesh) is given for the life of the world. So naturally the crowd asks for this bread. They were not asking for something that He wasn’t offering.”You’ve missed the point. The crowd asked for the bread becasue they thought it was physical like with Moses(32). That is why when Jesus continues they actually abandon him- only after they realise what he is ‘actually’ meaning. They are not naturally asking for ‘the bread that gives eternal life in the spiritual sense that Jesus means.
I understand that they don’t fully understand what Jesus was offering, but the point that I was making was that they asked for what Jesus was offering – this eternal bread. The fact that Jesus offered the bread shows that it was given for their behalf, not just for given for the elect.
Your last sentence is wrong. They ‘were’ asking for something Jesus wasn’t offering. Jesus was not offering physical bread like they wanted. Once they realise the truth of what he means, they run, they do not ask again for the spiritual bread.
Mark, they were asking for everlasting bread. They just didn’t understand that it was “spiritual” everlasting bread. They did not run because they found out that it was spiritual bread. They run for another reason. We will get into that when we continue shortly in the passage.
“So the question I would like to ask, did Jesus offer eternal life to the crowd?”
No he did not offer- he told them to ‘believe’, there is a difference.(29). Problem was the crowd was blind to what he was saying- as we have already agreed they were thinking physically not spiritually. And as we will see no one can ‘believe’ unless God enables them.
The problem that you have with the text is that Jesus said that what He gives is for the “world” and although the crowd misunderstands what it is that He is giving, they do understand that they are included in the term “world” otherwise they would not have asked him to give them the bread.
John 6:33–34 (NASB)
33 “For the bread of God is that which comes down out of heaven, and gives life to the world.”
34 Then they said to Him, “Lord, always give us this bread.”
If Jesus gives life to the world, then God is merciful to enable all to believe. If God does not enable all to believe, then it would be a lie to say that Jesus gives life to the “world”. All are “able” unless they reject what they have been given.
“What you missed is that Jesus said “whoever” which is not a term that limits faith in Jesus to a select few who are alone “gifted” with faith. Rather they come and they believe as their own action since the word “believes” is a present, active verb. It is not passive as if it were a gift given.”
Again you missed the point of the verse. The question is can everybody ‘come’ and thus ‘believe’ in the first place? John 6 says no- only those the Father enables can ‘come’ and therefore believe.
That is not true. God enables all. But when ones who have been enabled harden their heart against God and refuse to believe, they will not be drawn to Jesus. Is that fair? Of course it is. If they refuse to believe the Father, why should He draw them to Jesus? We will see more of this in the coming verses.
‘Whoever’ means exactly what it means- whoever the Father enables to come will never thrist or hunger- or paraphrased God’s call does not come back empty. I agree that the ‘belief’ of the person is their own choice and action- that has never been a matter of contention so the present active confirms what i believe.
Whoever means whoever. If God was picking favorites to come to Jesus then the term would not be “whoever” but “the elect”. It would be a definite people not a general term.
And how can the “belief” of a person be their own choice if God gives faith as a gift? If faith is a gift that one receives without doing anything on their own, then the belief would be passive as it would be given to the person and not something that they themselves must do. You are being inconsistent here.
To be continued…
Cheryl,
First I will respond to some of your comments regarding the nature of the atonement and after that I will move on to your last two lots of exegetical points.
“You keep saying that only a specific group of people can be given life and have their sins atoned. Where is your proof of this?”
Let me first give a definition of what I understand the atonement to be…
“The atonement is the work of God in Christ on the cross whereby he canceled the debt of our sin, appeased his holy wrath against us, and won for us all the benefits of salvation. The death of Christ was necessary because God would not show a just regard for his glory if he swept sins under the rug with no recompense.”
It is important to note that the atonement is the ‘canceling’ of our debt. That is, Jesus took our sin and the punishment for our sin onto his shoulders. Now if Jesus atoned in exactly the same way for every person, how is it that they are sent to hell- are not their sins ‘atoned’ for? Perhaps Cheryl, you believe that the sin of ‘unbelief’ or ‘rejection’ of the message of salvation was not atoned for. If that is what you believe then that worries me, because then you are saying the atonement was only ‘partial’- it did not atone for all sin. I can not accept that Jesus took the sin for every single person, yet people still go to hell- that is an oxymoron, it’s not an atonement at all.
Now some passages regarding the ‘limited’ nature of the atonement.
Joh 10:15 just as the Father knows me and I know the Father; and I lay down my life for the sheep.
Joh 10:16 And I have other sheep that are not of this fold. I must bring them also, and they will listen to my voice. So there will be one flock, one shepherd.
Now you object Cheryl because here Jesus does not say ‘only’. That is true- but look at verse 16. His sheep are from other ‘folds’ and he must bring them also. This is evidently how we should understand the term ‘world’- people from every tribe, language, nation. Universal language needs to be understood against the backdrop of the first century when the Jews were astonished that salvation was given also to the gentiles.
Joh 17:19 And for their sake I consecrate myself, that they also may be sanctified in truth.
Joh 17:20 “I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word,
Jesus ‘consecration’ is his atonement. It is for his disciples and for those who ‘believe’ through the disciples teaching (Christians). This is in the midst of Jesus prayer where he specifically says he is not praying for the ‘world’ (non-believers) in the context.
Joh 11:51 He did not say this of his own accord, but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation,
Joh 11:52 and not for the nation only, but also to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad.
Again we see here more clearly how we should understand universal language. Jesus not only died for the jews but also the ‘children’ from abroad (the world)
Revelation 5:9, “Worthy art Thou to take the scroll and to open its seals, for Thou wast slain and by Thy blood didst ransom men for God from every tribe and tongue and people and nation.”
Same again. Note it does not say every single man in the world. It is limited
John 11:51-52, “He prophesied that Jesus should die for the nation, and not for the nation only, but to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad.”
1 John 2:2, “He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.”
Note the parellel between John 11 and 1 John 2:2(often used against limited atonement). It’s clear John is using universal language to mean people scattered abroad (from all tribes, toungues etc). Also remember that ‘propitiated’ sins cannot be punished. So if the propititation is every single person then every single person is excluded from punishment= universalism.
More…
Mar 10:45 For even the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.”
‘Many’ not all. And again
Mat 26:28 for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
Hebrews 9:28, “So Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time, not deal with sin but to save those who are eagerly waiting for him.”
More…
Eph 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her,
Eph 5:26 that he might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the washing of water with the word,
Eph 5:27 so that he might present the church to himself in splendor, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and without blemish.
The people who benefit from the atonement are the church…not all men. Christ gave himself up for ‘her’.
Titus 2:14 “He gave himself for us to redeem us from all iniquity and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good deeds.”
Christ redeems ‘us’ the church, not all men.
Finally
Rom 8:32 He who did not spare his own Son but gave him up for us all, how will he not also with him graciously give us all things?
See the link between the atonement and God giving us all things. If the atonement is for all men, then the promise of this verse is destroyed.
To conclude Jesus only ‘atoned’ for God’s children- the elect. Redemption is preached to all, but the actual nature and effect of the atonement belongs to those for whom Jesus actually atoned- the elect. If the atonement was universal then we must accept a doctrine of universalism which I am not willing to do. You cannot say that Jesus bore the sins of all men and then say that people are still punished for their sins because of rejection of the gospel. If this is true, then Jesus never actually atoned their sins anyway. Cheryl you must have a very different definiton of what ‘atonement’ actually means. It cannot mean ‘full forgiveness of sins’ because the wrath of God fell on Jesus.
Your exegesis from #303
“Jesus said that the crowd had “seen” him (they had been a witness and experienced or caught sight of his miracles) yet they did not believe in Him. Now we are going to find out why.”
I agree that the crowd had seen all Jesus miracles (feeding the five thousand etc). I like that you pointed out that now we find out.
“Joh 6:37 All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out.”
And then you said “Jesus says that “all” (not some, but all) that the Father “gives” Him will (not maybe, but will) come to Him. He also assures them that the one who comes to Him will not be cast out as a rejected one.”
So I was a bit disappointed because you didn’t actually address why they didn’t believe- you missed it. It is obvious that the reason they do not believe/come is because the Father has not ‘given’ them to Jesus. So although they had seen all his miracles they were unable to be saved because God the Father did not allow them to come/ believe in Jesus- they were unregenerate.
You are correct that the verse says ‘all who the Father gives will come… but that is far different from the text saying that ‘the Father gives all to come’. The meaning changes completely, so this text does not support a prevenient grace theology. I like that you emphasised ‘will’ come. That is they ‘will believe’ (since we agree on the synonymous words)- this is a clear text to support irresistible grace. Those that the Father gives to Jesus will believe- God’s elect cannot resist the Father’s grace. Also I like the way you emphasises that Jesus will never cast out those who come/believe. It is important to realise that true believers can never lose their salvation as Jesus rightly points out.
Regarding this verse I was abit concerned about how you swapped the ‘Father giving’ with those unregenerate who ‘feared God’. I don’t think this verse supports that at all. Those who the Father foreknows are those who the Father gives. To make it conditional on one’s ability as an unregenerate person to fear God concerns me. You are reading way to much into the verse. For example you conclude
“The requirement then to be “given” to Jesus is that they believed the Father first.”
I do not believe this at all. Salvation in Jesus is not ‘conditional’ on anything we do beforehand- it is a gracious gift of God. To say that one had to ‘do’ something before they were able to come to Jesus is outrageous- you are essentially saying people had to work their way to be given to Jesus. The verse clearly says that ‘all the Father gives me will come to me’. We agreed that ‘coming’ is synonymous for believing, but now you are saying that they had to ‘believe’ the Father BEFORE they could believe in the Son. It seems like you are only applying these verses to first century Jews- is that a fair statement? Since only they could fear the Father before the Son became incarnate. We post incarnate do not have that ability right?
“We can confidently know that the crowd of unbelievers were not given to Jesus because they did not first belong to the Father. To belong to the Father one must believe the Father. They did not believe the Father so they did not believe Jesus.”
It seems like you are contradicting yourself. You have said that the crowd were ’seeking’ for everlasting bread, but now you are saying that they did not believe the Father (by the way what did they have to believe about the Father to qualify to be given to Jesus. Maybe you can point it out from the text). I don’t think you can have it both ways. You can’t say these people were seeking for everlasting bread and then say that they didn’t believe the Father.
John 6:38 “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.
I’m not even going to go into the ‘will’ debate at the moment. There is too much other stuff for us to discuss at the present time. But it is interesting how Jesus relates ‘his will’ to ‘heaven’ not just the incarnation. Food for thought!
More on your other exegesis tomorrow or the next day.
Mark,
Thanks for your quick response. You said:
It is important to note that the atonement is the ‘canceling’ of our debt. That is, Jesus took our sin and the punishment for our sin onto his shoulders. Now if Jesus atoned in exactly the same way for every person, how is it that they are sent to hell- are not their sins ‘atoned’ for?
I agree that the atonement is the complete payment of our debt and that Jesus took all of our sins and the punishment for our sins on his own body. Because Jesus paid for our sins on the cross there was not a single part of the payment for our sins that could happen after the cross. It was “paid in full” as Jesus Himself said when He cried out “It is finished”.
The entire work of redemption had been brought to completion. The single Gr. word here (translated “it is finished”) has been found in the papyri being placed on receipts for taxes meaning “paid in full” (see Col. 3:13, 14).
MacArthur, J. J. (1997). The MacArthur Study Bible (Jn 19:30).
Mark you asked:
Now if Jesus atoned in exactly the same way for every person, how is it that they are sent to hell- are not their sins ‘atoned’ for?
It is for the very same reason as why your sins were not forgiven by God before you were born. Or perhaps I should not assume that you believe as I do. Mark tell me were your sins atoned for and forgiven on the cross so that not even one sin that you would commit in the future would be held against you? Were you created with your sins already forgiven since Jesus’ atonement on the cross happened before you were born?
Perhaps Cheryl, you believe that the sin of ‘unbelief’ or ‘rejection’ of the message of salvation was not atoned for. If that is what you believe then that worries me, because then you are saying the atonement was only ‘partial’- it did not atone for all sin.
The only sin that was not atoned for on the cross was the unpardonable sin and this cannot be done in ignorance. Every single forgiveable sin was paid for completely on the cross. Not a partial payment – but a full and complete payment.
Now some passages regarding the ‘limited’ nature of the atonement.
Joh 10:15 just as the Father knows me and I know the Father; and I lay down my life for the sheep.
Joh 10:16 And I have other sheep that are not of this fold. I must bring them also, and they will listen to my voice. So there will be one flock, one shepherd.Now you object Cheryl because here Jesus does not say ‘only’. That is true- but look at verse 16. His sheep are from other ‘folds’ and he must bring them also.
You rightly picked out my objection. Jesus did not say that He laid down His life for only the sheep. As far as “bringing” other sheep, this is a far different thing than dying for all. I am not saying that Jesus “brings” all into the flock. Therefore the issue of Jesus bringing other sheep does not answer my question. I am asking where you get the doctrine that Jesus died only for the elect. John 10:15, 16 does not say that He laid down His life only for the sheep. So let’s agree that Jesus doesn’t bring all into the sheepfold. But you must still answer the question about the extent of who Jesus died for.
This is evidently how we should understand the term ‘world’- people from every tribe, language, nation. Universal language needs to be understood against the backdrop of the first century when the Jews were astonished that salvation was given also to the gentiles.
I agree that Jesus died for the “world” as in every tribe and every language group and every nation because Jesus died for all. But where does the Bible say that Jesus did not die for everyone and that Jesus died only for the elect? Where is this limitation clearly stated?
You said:
Joh 17:19 And for their sake I consecrate myself, that they also may be sanctified in truth.
Joh 17:20 “I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word,Jesus ‘consecration’ is his atonement. It is for his disciples and for those who ‘believe’ through the disciples teaching (Christians). This is in the midst of Jesus prayer where he specifically says he is not praying for the ‘world’ (non-believers) in the context.
Consecration is not the sacrifice but it is a dedication and a making holy of something that is already cleansed. There is not a single lexicon that I have that says this Greek word means the sacrifice. You are simply wrong in using these verses to refer to the atonement. Jesus is praying for believers and for those who will become believers. His dedicating Himself and He is dedicating them for unity. The dedication is for that which is already cleansed and we will become one – the reason for Jesus’ dedication.
I agree that Jesus in this Prayer to the Father in John 17 did not pray for the unbelieving world. He only prayed for believers and future believers that they may see Him and His glory. But this is far from any kind of proof that Jesus died only for believers. Consecration is not the atonement. Only believers will see Jesus in His glory in heaven and Jesus’ prayer was rightfully only for believers.
Is this why it was so easy for you to become a Calvinist? Did you accept by faith that consecration meant the atonement rather than looking the word up to see what the actual Greek word meant? It is impossible to get the atonement into this passage and say that Jesus limited His death to only a few.
Joh 11:51 He did not say this of his own accord, but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation,
Joh 11:52 and not for the nation only, but also to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad.Again we see here more clearly how we should understand universal language. Jesus not only died for the jews but also the ‘children’ from abroad (the world)
The problem that you have here is that Jesus is prophesied to die for “the nation”. But not all of the nation became believers, yet He died for the nation. It is universal language that includes Jesus’ death for all whether they were believers or not. Once again a wonderful passage that proves universal atonement even for the unbelievers.
Revelation 5:9, “Worthy art Thou to take the scroll and to open its seals, for Thou wast slain and by Thy blood didst ransom men for God from every tribe and tongue and people and nation.”
Same again. Note it does not say every single man in the world. It is limited
Once again the passage you quoted does not say that Jesus died only for a select few. His blood ransomed people from all tribes, all tongues and all peoples and all nations. The passage cannot be used at all to say that Jesus died for only a select few people.
The verses that you are using are the most powerful ones that show the universal extent of the atonement.
You said:
John 11:51-52, “He prophesied that Jesus should die for the nation, and not for the nation only, but to gather into one the children of God who are scattered abroad.”
1 John 2:2, “He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.”
Note the parellel between John 11 and 1 John 2:2(often used against limited atonement). It’s clear John is using universal language to mean people scattered abroad (from all tribes, toungues etc). Also remember that ‘propitiated’ sins cannot be punished. So if the propititation is every single person then every single person is excluded from punishment= universalism.
I will discuss this after you answer my earlier question. If Jesus’ death was a propititation for your sins, then were your sins completely paid for before you were born so that you were born sinless in God’s eyes? Were your sins paid for and forgiven with no sin left to be forgiven while you were still a sinner? And how could you be a sinner if your sins were already forgiven? Again, I will answer your questions very clearly after you answer about your own sins and Jesus’ death.
More…
Mar 10:45 For even the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.”
‘Many’ not all.
Many is a synonym for “all”. Many is not a synonym for few. How do you explain this? Jesus did not say that He came to give His life for a few yet He clearly said that only a few would find life.
Matthew 7:14 (NASB)
14 “For the gate is small and the way is narrow that leads to life, and there are few who find it.
If Jesus said that only a few find life, then how come He also said that He died for many and not few? This verse proves the universal extent of the atonement and not that Jesus died for the few but rather for the many.
You said:
And again
Mat 26:28 for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
Hebrews 9:28, “So Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time, not deal with sin but to save those who are eagerly waiting for him.”
My answer still stands. How can the few now become the many? Did Jesus die for the few or the many?
More…
Eph 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her,
Eph 5:26 that he might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the washing of water with the word,
Eph 5:27 so that he might present the church to himself in splendor, without spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and without blemish.The people who benefit from the atonement are the church…not all men. Christ gave himself up for ‘her’.
Yes, the church benefits from the atonement, yet Paul did not say that Jesus gave Himself up only for the church and no benefit was made for rest of the world. The fact that only the church will believe cannot be used to prove that Jesus dying for the many is the same thing as Jesus dying for the few. How do you explain this contradiction?
Titus 2:14 “He gave himself for us to redeem us from all iniquity and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good deeds.”
Christ redeems ‘us’ the church, not all men.
Again these verses are all true, but none of them reads that Jesus died only for the church and that He did not give up His life for all men.
Finally
Rom 8:32 He who did not spare his own Son but gave him up for us all, how will he not also with him graciously give us all things?See the link between the atonement and God giving us all things. If the atonement is for all men, then the promise of this verse is destroyed.
Why do you think that?
To conclude Jesus only ‘atoned’ for God’s children- the elect.
I understand that this is what you believe Mark, but I also fail to see how someone convinced you from the Scriptures that Jesus died only for a select few. None of the verses that you quoted says that. How on earth did you accept so easily that Jesus the God of mercy could not have mercy on more than a very few that He would choose before they had faith? How does this give glory to the God of Mercy who is gracious and merciful?
Psalm 145:8 (NASB)
8 The LORD is gracious and merciful;
Slow to anger and great in lovingkindness.
Is the Almighty God now devoid of grace and mercy except to a very few that He chose without any condition of faith? Is He now less than great in lovingkindness since He chose unconditionally to bestow His lovingkindness and mercy on so few? I fail to see how God’s unconditional choice of just a few and sending Jesus to die for just a few is Biblical just as I fail to see how it is glorifying to the amazing God who ABOUNDS in mercy. How does His abounding in mercy show from the Calvinist limited atonement doctrine?
Rather than a limited atonement preplanned for just a few, the Scriptures are replete with the joy of God’s abundant mercy:
Psalm 103:8 (NKJV)
8 The LORD is merciful and gracious,
Slow to anger, and abounding in mercy.
Can you show how God is abounding in mercy with a rare and scarce atonement?
Mark you continued:
Redemption is preached to all, but the actual nature and effect of the atonement belongs to those for whom Jesus actually atoned- the elect.
This position really makes God out to be a God of mockery. What is the purpose of preaching redemption to all and requiring all to believe what for most is a lie? How could we require one for whom Christ did not die to believe that Christ died for him? Is that not a lie? Yet he must believe this lie and is required by God’s wrath to believe the lie? How is that consistent with God’s view of truth? Can any of us preach the salvation of Jesus on the cross to one who was not included in the atonement but who is not excluded in the command to believe it? This seems to me to be a twisted plan of mockery which is far more consistent with the nature of satan than that of God. I am not trying to accuse you of anything, but just giving you my Biblical understanding of a doctrine that requires the non-elect to repent and believe when by the very nature of their “place” as one who has been picked as an eternal reprobate, they cannot act in belief as one of the elect but are required to believe a lie or suffer God’s wrath. Who could demand such a thing while withholding from them the very thing that they need to respond, repent and believe?
If the atonement was universal then we must accept a doctrine of universalism which I am not willing to do.
This is a false dilemma. It is not either or. It is not just Calvinism or universalism because there are not just two choices. Who convinced you that there are Biblically only two choices?
You cannot say that Jesus bore the sins of all men and then say that people are still punished for their sins because of rejection of the gospel. If this is true, then Jesus never actually atoned their sins anyway. Cheryl you must have a very different definiton of what ‘atonement’ actually means. It cannot mean ‘full forgiveness of sins’ because the wrath of God fell on Jesus.
Again, I will answer this after you answer my questions. I will ask in a slightly different way right now. How can your sins have been forgiven by the atonement of Christ yet you were still called a sinner and in need of being regenerated because of your sin? Why did the atonement which was paid on your behalf have no affect on you until late in your life? Do you have an answer for that? I am quite anxious to hear your answers. And I am quite anxious to respond to your questions after you are given a full chance to explain yourself.
Mark, it would be a good time to remind everyone that I believe you to be a brother in Christ – one who has been saved by grace through faith in the Lord Jesus because of the atonement of Christ on the cross. This debate is not between a believer and an unbeliever. It is an inhouse debate between believers.
That’s all I had time for right now. I will get to the next comments of yours later when I have another break to respond.
Cheryl,
I will answer your question which is ” How can your sins have been forgiven by the atonement of Christ yet you were still called a sinner and in need of being regenerated because of your sin? Why did the atonement which was paid on your behalf have no affect on you until late in your life?”
I have already said earlier but you must have missed it. I agree that the atonement becomes effective by our coming to salvation. When Jesus died, he died for past, present and future sins.
However God was not limited in knowing who his sheep were (contra open theism) both past and future. He knew who were his elect and so Jesus bore there sins on the tree enabling them to be granted ‘atonement’ from their sins once God regenerated their hearts and they put faith in Christ. Even an evangelical arminian agrees with this. God is not limited in knowing who will be his sheep.
So therefore i disagree that God forgave or ‘atoned’ for non believers sins. Yes the atonement requires our faith to be effective but the only sins atoned for by Jesus on the cross were those God determined to be his. The atonement acheived something for God’s people. It did not just merely make it ‘possible’ (contra Cheryl). Your view in my opinion makes the atonement a non-atonement. It didn’t actually acheive anything, because the effectiveness is only depended on my own faith.
Now you can dismiss all the texts you like and say ‘many’ is synonymous for ‘all’, but i think that is wrong. There are so many cases in the New Testament of universal language being used in a limited sense- we use it ALL the time. After all you don’t say that that Christ justified ‘all’ men do you?
Rom 5:18 Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men.
This is the inconsistency in the Arminian position- it picks and chooses which texts to use. It ignores the cultural backdrop to help understand what the NT authors meant.
I look forward to see how you explain the atonement. I wonder how you believe that unbelievers sins are forgiven on the cross yet they are not forgiven on judgement day.
Finally, the whole arguments about God’s mercy and love are unconvincing. God is merciful that we can even breath right now becasue of our sin. The mind of the ‘flesh’ cannot even please God yet he gives people happy healthy lives. This is God’s common grace. He is gracious to all of us, even those who always have the ‘flesh’ nature of the first Adam
Rom 8:5 For those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who live according to the Spirit set their minds on the things of the Spirit.
Rom 8:6 For to set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace.
Rom 8:7 For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God’s law; indeed, it cannot.
Rom 8:8 Those who are in the flesh cannot please God.
Your position does not make God anymore loving or merciful (unless you hold to open theism of course). An arminian perspective on God at least upholds the biblical teaching on God’s foreknowledge, so is not God creating people who he knows won’t respond in faith? The Arminian position does not overcome our notions of injustice- it remains the same. God still creates people knowing they are going to be sent to hell. That is why i at least appreciate the open theist perspective- it is the logical conclusion to the Arminain position although most arminains attempt to dispute that.
“The problem that you have here is that Jesus is prophesied to die for “the nation”. But not all of the nation became believers, yet He died for the nation. ”
Cheryl look again at verse 52 in John 11 and then see what ‘nation’ should mean. Those that Jesus died for ‘nation’, ‘scattered children of God’, John saids, God will “bring them together and make them one”. Doesn’t sound like non belivers to me, does it to you? Those Jesus died for will be brought together as one!- God’s church or elect. Not all Israel is Israel!
Anyway i could go back over all of what you said but we need to move on in the exegesis. After you attempt to show me what your understanding of the atonement is, i will respond to your latest exegetical points.
Mark, you said:
So therefore i disagree that God forgave or ‘atoned’ for non believers sins.
The fact is that we were all non-believers and sinners at one time and yet Christ died for sinners.
Romans 5:8 (NASB)
8 But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.Romans 5:6 (NASB)
6 For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly.
Unbelievers are are ungodly yet Christ died for the ungodly. Paul could have said that while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the elect. But he didn’t say that. He said that God died for the ungodly. So if one is ungodly and a sinner, we qualify as one that Christ died for.
You said:
Yes the atonement requires our faith to be effective but the only sins atoned for by Jesus on the cross were those God determined to be his.
Is the atonement not complete if it requires our faith? Is it just an offer and not given by Christ before our faith?
The atonement acheived something for God’s people. It did not just merely make it ‘possible’ (contra Cheryl).
Yes the atonement achieved something for God’s people but it also achieved something for all sinners. I never once said that it merely made salvation “possible”. You are claiming something for me that I never said and do not believe. Why do you do that? I have made it quite clear that the atonement was fully paid. It was not a mere “possibility”. It was all of our sins paid fully and complete.
Your view in my opinion makes the atonement a non-atonement. It didn’t actually acheive anything, because the effectiveness is only depended on my own faith.
What is the atonement dependent on? Is the atonement effective without your faith?
Now you can dismiss all the texts you like and say ‘many’ is synonymous for ‘all’, but i think that is wrong.
You can think what you will, but thinking doesn’t make it so. You need Scripture to back up your view. Where is “many” ever synonymous with “few”?
There are so many cases in the New Testament of universal language being used in a limited sense- we use it ALL the time. After all you don’t say that that Christ justified ‘all’ men do you?
Rom 5:18 Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. ?
Eternal life is justification and yes this is given for all men. Just as one act of sin condemned all, so one act of righteousness gave life (and justification) to all. If it isn’t universal in both cases, then it doesn’t make sense. We could then say that the “all” that is condemnation isn’t really for all after all. What it means for one side, it must mean for the other or the comparison is meaningless.
This is the inconsistency in the Arminian position- it picks and chooses which texts to use. It ignores the cultural backdrop to help understand what the NT authors meant.
This is the inconsistency in the Calvinist position not my position. I am consistent. I take the texts for what they say and the comparisons are realcomparisons making Jesus truly the last Adam.
I look forward to see how you explain the atonement. I wonder how you believe that unbelievers sins are forgiven on the cross yet they are not forgiven on judgement day.
Please explain further so that I can have a full picture of what you believe. It will help me to use your own words in my explanation so that we can be in a position of understanding. One cannot refute a position that he does not understand.
Finally, the whole arguments about God’s mercy and love are unconvincing.
It isn’t an argument jhust about God’s mercy and love but about the very character and nature of God. If God tells us what His nature is and He explains it clear in the Scriptures, we need to listen and understand.
God is merciful that we can even breath right now becasue of our sin. The mind of the ‘flesh’ cannot even please God yet he gives people happy healthy lives. This is God’s common grace. He is gracious to all of us, even those who always have the ‘flesh’ nature of the first Adam
This is getting into Romans and we can go on to whatever chapters and books you want to discuss next. But I don’t want to go verse by verse through that very important passage until we get there.
Your position does not make God anymore loving or merciful (unless you hold to open theism of course).
Oh really? Why does God sending His Own Son to die for all not make her more loving and merciful than God sending Jesus to die for just a few select individuals who have been chosen unconditionally?
An arminian perspective on God at least upholds the biblical teaching on God’s foreknowledge, so is not God creating people who he knows won’t respond in faith?
Sure, God’s creates people who He knows won’t respond in faith. But that doesn’t mean that He is not allowed to purchase their salvation? If so, please show me this from the Scripture.
The Arminian position does not overcome our notions of injustice- it remains the same. God still creates people knowing they are going to be sent to hell.
Their position is vastly different than yours. They believe that God purchased the salvation of all, even though the salvation is rejected, but your position has God purposely creating people whom He has chosen them to go to hell and God has chosen to withhold from them what they need to be saved, yet the position also has God pleading with them to be saved and then getting angry with them that they are not able to obey Him because He has purposely withheld from them the ability to obey His command. That sounds a lot like injustice to me and any earthly judge who would act this way would have the world in an uproar about his injustice.
That is why i at least appreciate the open theist perspective- it is the logical conclusion to the Arminain position although most arminains attempt to dispute that.
It isn’t logical at all. It creates a God who isn’t Sovereign and who not only lies about his abilities but he also is not able to act in advance but only able to react. What on earth would that God do if one of his elect dies that he was counting on for a work? No. The open theist position is not logical and it is not Biblical. I am quite concerned about you, that you would even consider it logical.
“The problem that you have here is that Jesus is prophesied to die for “the nation”. But not all of the nation became believers, yet He died for the nation. ”
Cheryl look again at verse 52 in John 11 and then see what ‘nation’ should mean. Those that Jesus died for ‘nation’, ’scattered children of God’, John saids, God will “bring them together and make them one”. Doesn’t sound like non belivers to me, does it to you? Those Jesus died for will be brought together as one!- God’s church or elect. Not all Israel is Israel!
Let’s have another look at the verse and compare it to what John himself said in the book of 1 John. John is not going to contradict himself.
John 11:52 (NASB)
52 and not for the nation only, but in order that He might also gather together into one the children of God who are scattered abroad.1 John 2:2 (NASB)
2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.
John said that the price that Jesus paid is not for the nation only, but for the whole world. If John had meant that it was for only the elect in the world, he could have said that. He doesn’t just say “world” here but “whole world”. The term whole is another universal term. It shows that John is not referring to a “few” individuals but the “whole” world.
Anyway i could go back over all of what you said but we need to move on in the exegesis. After you attempt to show me what your understanding of the atonement is, i will respond to your latest exegetical points.
Let’s stick with this a little while longer. I can see that you have no understanding what I have been saying and so it makes it all the more important that we work toward understanding. I am not saying that you must believe as I do, but it is our time to understand what the other believes. So go ahead and answer the questions here and if there is enough understanding, I can fill in the blanks that have not yet been said.
Thanks cobber!
Mark you said:
Let me say it again as I already have done. I am not saying one can receive eternal life apart from the death of Christ. The issue is whether ‘world’ is meant to be understood universally.
Then I don’t understand why you had such a hard time with what I said, since I have always agree that the giving of life is the giving of eternal life. I think you were considering the implications of what you might be agreeing to, and that hindered your full agreement.
“I think that we can agree that it is eternal life that is the meaning in John 6:33.”
I’m glad we agree!
That sure took a long time for you to realize that, eh?
“It is interesting that the term “world” has no reference to the elect.”
Are you sure…look again at your ref. “6) sum total of particulars in any one field of experience, world, totality”… a sum total of ‘particulars’. Your own ref proves you wrong.
“Jesus can be the one who gives life to all without all being saved.”
This is a nonsense statement. You agree that John 6:33 is about eternal life, but yet you say the above. How does Jesus give life (not offer) to the world yet not all are saved-it’s a complete contradiction. Obviously ‘life’ isn’t given to the every single person. This is where you are substituting ‘offer’ for ‘given’.
No, that is not true at all. I am not substituting “offer” for “given”. Jesus gave life to all by the atonement. But giving something doesn’t mean that the person has it. This is where the questions I asked you come in. If Jesus “gave” you eternal life at the cross, then why didn’t you have it when you were born? Did He give it to you at the cross or just offer it? Or for what reason did you not have eternal life when you were born and you needed to be born again?
“Not true. The Bible says an emphastic “yes”! It is given to everyone. This is the key importance of the atonement – that it was a universal sacrifice that no man can ever blame God for not giving on his behalf. It is a “paid for” sacrifice that is “applied” by faith.”
So everyone is given eternal life (not offered) but you don’t hold to universalism? You confuse me! How can their sins be ‘paid for’ if they are still punished? Obviously you do not believe their sins were paid for because you reject universalism.
This is the problem that you have. You have been conditioned to think that there are only two choices – unversalism or Calvinism. But there are not just two choices. There is the Biblical doctrine of universal atonement yet not all are saved. I do believe that everyone’s sins are paid for. We will be able to discuss more as you answer the question about how you could have any need for forgiveness when your sins were completely paid for on the cross.
“Eternal life is “given” to all but “received” by only a few.”
This sentence is obvious how you substitue ‘offer’ for ‘given’. They are not given eternal life in heaven because they go to hell. They are offered it sure but not given.
“Do you believe that the atonement on the cross fully forgives all of your sins or did the application of the atonement happen later? In other words were you already forgiven before you were born or did the application need to be a separate even from the actual atonement?”
Yes I believe that the atonement enables all of my sins to be forgiven.
Ah, it is a “to be forgiven” not a “done deal”?
Of course the application is necessary- I do not deny that.
Then let’s focus on the application if we both agree that an application of the fully paid price must be applied.
But that is different to saying that those who never apply the atonement have already had their sins atoned for.
How is it that those who have never had their sins atoned for are commanded to believe (apply) the atonement? Do you not see a contradiction here?
Jesus only atoned for those who the father gives, those who have and will believe.
My friend, Mark, you are adding that into the Scripture, because Jesus never said it. Jesus talked about those who would come to Him, but He never said that He would only atone for those who would come. By adding to the Scripture one goes beyond what is said.
He does not atone for those who have or will not believe.
Where does the Bible say that?
And of course God knew and predestined those who would believe thus enabling Jesus to atone for only them.
These are Calvinist doctrines but they cannot be proven from the actual Scriptures since to believe them one must add to what is written. That is why I don’t believe in Calvinism. I would rather believe in what is actually written in the Scriptures.
“Were they wrong believing that Jesus was the Savior for the whole world?”
Let me say again that universal language need to be understood in the first century backdrop. It is best understood as God’s elect from every tribe, nation and language.
Surely Jesus could have said that clearly. Why didn’t He say that he would save only a select few the God chose? Why didn’t He make it clear that those who did not believe Him had been selected by God to go to hell? Why would He have chosen words that were universal rather than limited? Doesn’t it appear that to accept Calvinism would require a reinterpreting of what has been inspired as universal language? If it is really truth, what should we have to do that?
We see this in the book of Acts when the Jews are astonished that even the gentiles receive the holy spirit. The first century was very ‘exclusive’.
But they were wrong and the OT makes it clear that God’s intention was for all nations to know Him and not just one exclusive nation. They failed to see God’s universal intentions and they held on to a wrong view because of it.
“If God does not enable all to believe, then it would be a lie to say that Jesus gives life to the “world”. All are “able” unless they reject what they have been given.”
2 points. Jesus did not lie. You argue like this because you misunderstand what ‘world’ means.
Don’t get me wrong. I don’t believe that Jesus lied. I believe that He told the truth. He said world and He meant world. He died for “many” just as he said. He did not die for “few”. The definition of “world” is the definition of the “many”. It is all encompassing and for those who wish to redefine world to mean a “few”, how could we reject the inspired words of “world” and “many” and reinterpret this to be “unconditionally selected” and “few” regarding the atonement? It just doesn’t match with the Scripture.
More to come in the next comment….
Mark,
You said:
By the way i did just a quick bit of research to see whether your claim that no lexicons prove my point about the word ‘world’, and unfortunately for you your wrong.
For example if you had a closer look at the ‘Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament’ by Bauer, Arndt and Gingrich you would have seen one of there definitions.
“5.b. of all mankind, but especially of believers as the object of God’s love”
My friend, you are not correct once again. I saw that and it clearly says “of all mankind” “but especially of believers”. This includes believers within all mankind so the believers cannot be removed from “all mankind” but are included within. That is why “believers” is not a separate entry but goes with “all of mankind”. This is why I said very confidently that all the lexicons I have shows the universal “all mankind” application.
Let’s look at their examples that you gave:
It is also interesting to note what NT references they use to come to this conclusion “J 3:16, 17c, 6:33, 51; 12:47.”
Let’s take it exactly as BDAG gives the meaning from their lexicon and applies it to these verses:
John 3:16 (NASB)
16 “For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.
This then means according to BDAG that God so loved “all of mankind, but especially believers as the object of God’s love” …
(notice how the believers are included in a special way, but all of mankind is included in the full meaning?)
John 3:17 (NASB)
17 “For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him.
For God did not send the Son into the world to judge “all of mankind but especially believers as the object of God’s love”…
John 6:33 (NASB)
33 “For the bread of God is that which comes down out of heaven, and gives life to the world.”
For the bread of God is that which comes down from heaven, and gives life to “all of mankind but especially believers as the object of God’s love”…
John 6:51 (NASB)
51 “I am the living bread that came down out of heaven; if anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever; and the bread also which I will give for the life of the world is My flesh.”
I am the living bread that came down out of heaven, if anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever; and the bread also which I will give for the life of “all of mankind but especially believers as the objects of God’s love”…
John 12:47 (NASB)
47 “If anyone hears My sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world.
If anyone hears My sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge “all of mankind but especially believers as the objects of God’s love”…
My friend, you cannot remove “all of mankind” from the entry on BDAG. In the same way, Paul uses the same term to include the whole and emphasizes the small portion within:
1 Corinthians 14:1 (NASB)
Prophecy a Superior Gift
1 Pursue love, yet desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy.
Prophesy is part of the full category of spiritual gifts.
Philippians 4:22 (NASB)
22 All the saints greet you, especially those of Caesar’s household.
Caesar’s household is a part of the full category of the saints.
And “believers” is a part of the full category of all mankind.
If BDAG wanted to make the believers as a category to itself and not a part of the whole (all mankind) they would have made it a separate number. They did not. So again, I am sorry to disappoint you, but “the world” is not a small number of a few chosen people. It is an expression not of “the few” but of “the many”.
Mark you said:
Second point, not all are ‘able’ to receive Christ. People are blind (2 Cor 4:4).
But people are blind for several reasons. One of the reasons is that they do not love the truth and another reason is that they love wickedness. These people do not come to the light to receive salvation.
2 Thessalonians 2:10–12 (NASB)
10 and with all the deception of wickedness for those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth so as to be saved.
11 For this reason God will send upon them a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false,
12 in order that they all may be judged who did not believe the truth, but took pleasure in wickedness.
God makes a difference between those who love their sin and those who practice the truth. Those who love their sin will never come to Jesus even though God draws them. Drawing is not the same thing as coming.
John 3:20–21 (NASB)
20 “For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed.
21 “But he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God.”Only those God inwardly calls are justified (Rom 8:29).
Romans 8:29 does not say “inward call” and the washing by the baptism into Jesus’ death is our justification.
1 Corinthians 6:11 (NASB)
11 Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.
It is Jesus’ blood that justifies and He freely gives His salvation by His death to all.
Jesus himself says that the crowd could not come because the Father did not enable, remember also that we agreed that ‘comes’ and ‘believes’ are synonymous. So only those that the Father brings to Jesus can come/believe. Jesus never says that all are able to come/believe.
We haven’t come to this part yet. We will deal with these verses in their context as we come to them. I look forward to it!
Give me one verse that says God enables ‘all’ to come/believe (remember they are synonymous) in John 6.
I just gave a bunch of verses in a previous comment that I did tonight. You will find the answer there.
It seems you are confusing a lot of different terms. All are enabled, but yet some refuse to believe and then they are not ‘drawn’ to Jesus. The Bible has a different order. We are all hard before regeneration (Eph 2:1, Rom 8:5-8),
Ephesians 2:1 doesn’t mention hardness and Romans 8:5-8 is not about all. Abraham and Noah and Job were not those who set their minds on the flesh. We can deal with this one further when we get to these passages.
then God draws/enables us (Jn 6:65, 37, 44) and then we believe.
You have the order right here. God always draws first and in His drawing He enables us to obey His command to believe. Since God first starts His work in us, it is His work first and then we believe.
You are making being ‘drawn’ to Jesus conditional on something we do (some sort of believing that is not believing in Jesus since it comes before being drawn to Jesus). I can’t accept that- it’s contrary to scripture.
No, not at all. There are many who have already been drawn to God and they now belong to Him. These ones who have been drawn to the Father and now promised to Jesus. They belong to the Father and are given to Jesus. The Father is not giving haters of God to Jesus. He only gives those who have heard Him and obeyed Him, to Jesus.
John 6:45 (NASB)
45 “It is written in the prophets, ‘AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.
The Bible never says that those who are evil will be given to Jesus and neither are those who refuse to learn from the Father given to Jesus.
“And how can the “belief” of a person be their own choice if God gives faith as a gift?”
Easy the Bible says so. Faith is a gift (Eph 2:8-9, Rom 12:3) yet we are told to believe so it is something we must do.
Ephesians 2:8, 9 is not talking about faith as a gift because the term is singular and faith is said to be the thing that the gift (salvation) comes through. If faith were also a gift, then the Greek term would have been plural.
In Romans 12:3, faith is a genitive. “The genitive is the case that qualifies or restricts a noun by means of a specific characterization. “The genitive normally marks a noun as the source or possessor of something, or refers to the kind of relationship that noun has to another noun. It is typically expressed in English by the preposition “of”. For example, in the phrase “throne of the king” the noun “king” is in the genitive and qualifies the type of throne. In “blood of Christ,” Christ is the genitive noun which describes possession. The genitive case is also used for the objects of some prepositions.”
In C.E.B. Cranfield’s “A critical and exegetical commentary on the Epistle to the Romans” Cranfield asks and answers what kind of genitive “faith” is in Romans 12:3. It isn’t a gift but a measure of a standard.
What kind of genitive is (faith)?…Every member of the church, instead of thinking of himself more highly than he ought, is so to think of himself as to think soberly, measuring himself by the standard which God has given him in his faith, that is, by a standard which forces him to concentrate his attention on those things in which he is on precisely the same level as his fellow-Christians rather than on those things in which he may be either superior or inferior to them—for the standard Paul has in mind consists, we take it, not in the relative strength or otherwise of the particular Christian’s faith but in the simple fact of its existence, that is, in the fact of his admission of his dependence on, and commitment to, Jesus Christ.3 When Christians measure themselves by themselves (or by their fellow-Christians or their pagan neighbours), they display their lack of understanding (cf. 2 Cor 10:12), and are sure to have too high (or else too low) an opinion of themselves; but, when they measure themselves by the standard which God has given them in their faith, they then—and only then—achieve a sober and true estimate of themselves as, equally with their fellows, both sinners revealed in their true colours by the judgment of the Cross and also the objects of God’s undeserved and triumphant mercy in Jesus Christ.
Cranfield, C. E. B. (2004). A critical and exegetical commentary on the Epistle to the Romans (615–616).
Hi Cheryl
I would have thought the usage of the present text in Romans 6:11 is exactly in line with what I was saying about Eph 2:5. In the Romans passage Paul tells the believers to “count themselves dead to sin” what does this mean – they should not let sin reign in their body, they should not offer parts of their body to sin and sin should not be their master. Thus the believers in Romans are to be dead to sin in just the same way the Eph were dead to life in Christ through their transgressions before God made them alive.
So yes we are dead in transgressions when God made us alive in Christ. I do not have the benefit of a greek dictionary at hand but It would seem to me that the word translated as “even” divides this verse and that is what the translators of the NIV have been getting at with their usage of the Term “we were dead” . The present tense is referring to the current nature of being dead in transgressions when we were made alive in Christ by God in His mercy. This is also consistent with the juxtaposition of the life/death imagery. For if while alive in Christ we are still presently dead in our transgressions then it would be saying that Christs sacrifice in itself was not sufficient would it not?
Mark,
You said:
“Joh 6:37 All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out.”
And then you said “Jesus says that “all” (not some, but all) that the Father “gives” Him will (not maybe, but will) come to Him. He also assures them that the one who comes to Him will not be cast out as a rejected one.”
So I was a bit disappointed because you didn’t actually address why they didn’t believe- you missed it. It is obvious that the reason they do not believe/come is because the Father has not ‘given’ them to Jesus.
Sorry to disappoint you. The reason that they do not come to him is later in the passage. I meant to express that the passage will tell us, but we haven’t come to it yet.
Yes, it is obvious that the reason that they do not believe in Jesus is the Father has not given to Jesus, but the reason that they are not given to Jesus will be clearly shown later. However even in this passage we can understand that they are not given to Jesus because they do not belong to the Father. All those who belong to the Father will be given to Jesus.
So although they had seen all his miracles they were unable to be saved because God the Father did not allow them to come/ believe in Jesus- they were unregenerate.
This is not what the passage says. We learn the reason in verse 45 and later.
You are correct that the verse says ‘all who the Father gives will come… but that is far different from the text saying that ‘the Father gives all to come’. The meaning changes completely, so this text does not support a prevenient grace theology.
There is a difference between giving of the person and enabling them to believe. In the passage we are discussing, it is people who are given to Jesus. The passages that I quoted you show that all are commanded to come. Commanding cannot be done without God enabling. We cannot come on our own.
I like that you emphasised ‘will’ come. That is they ‘will believe’ (since we agree on the synonymous words)- this is a clear text to support irresistible grace.
No, it doesn’t support irrestistible grace. It supports the teaching that these people had listened to and learned from the Father. Those who already submitted themselves to the Father will also submit to the Son. They have already received grace from the Father and anyone who loves the Father will love the Son.
Also I like the way you emphasises that Jesus will never cast out those who come/believe. It is important to realise that true believers can never lose their salvation as Jesus rightly points out.
Those who fear God and who continue in their faith will never be cast out.
Regarding this verse I was abit concerned about how you swapped the ‘Father giving’ with those unregenerate who ‘feared God’. I don’t think this verse supports that at all. Those who the Father foreknows are those who the Father gives.
Sorry, Mark but the verse does not say that those whom the Father foreknows are the ones given to Jesus:
John 6:37 (NASB)
37 “All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out.
We haven’t come to verse 45 yet, but it is important to look at right now in our discussion.
John 6:45 (NASB)
45 “It is written in the prophets, ‘AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.
Jesus didn’t say that all that the Father foreknew would be given to Jesus. He said that all who had heard and learned from the Father would come to Jesus. It is therefore important to understand that those who heard and learned from the Father belonged to the Father. They could be given to Jesus because they were the Father’s to give. The Father never gave haters of God to Jesus. Those ones didn’t belong to the Father, so they couldn’t be given to Jesus.
To make it conditional on one’s ability as an unregenerate person to fear God concerns me. You are reading way to much into the verse.
God commanded people to fear Him and many did. Just a brief check of the words “fear God” or “feared God” in the OT produces many amazing verses and nowhere does it say that those who feared God had to be made regenerate before they could fear.
For example you conclude
“The requirement then to be “given” to Jesus is that they believed the Father first. I do not believe this at all.”
This is what John 6:45 says. I believe it. Apparently you do not.
Salvation in Jesus is not ‘conditional’ on anything we do beforehand- it is a gracious gift of God. To say that one had to ‘do’ something before they were able to come to Jesus is outrageous- you are essentially saying people had to work their way to be given to Jesus.
There you go making faith in God a “work”. Scripture never calls it a work. You see I don’t have any presuppositions that would require me to disbelieve this verse:
John 6:45 (NASB)
45 “It is written in the prophets, ‘AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.’ Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.The verse clearly says that ‘all the Father gives me will come to me’. We agreed that ‘coming’ is synonymous for believing, but now you are saying that they had to ‘believe’ the Father BEFORE they could believe in the Son.
Jesus said that the Pharisees did not believe God’s word through Moses. Because they didn’t believe the Father’s word, they could not believe Jesus’ words.
John 5:46–47 (NASB)
46 “For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he wrote about Me.
47 “But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?”
You said:
It seems like you are only applying these verses to first century Jews- is that a fair statement? Since only they could fear the Father before the Son became incarnate. We post incarnate do not have that ability right?
No, not true. We are all commanded to fear God and God is righteous enough to give us the ability to fear Him.
“We can confidently know that the crowd of unbelievers were not given to Jesus because they did not first belong to the Father. To belong to the Father one must believe the Father. They did not believe the Father so they did not believe Jesus.”
It seems like you are contradicting yourself. You have said that the crowd were ’seeking’ for everlasting bread, but now you are saying that they did not believe the Father (by the way what did they have to believe about the Father to qualify to be given to Jesus. Maybe you can point it out from the text).
No, I didn’t say that the crowd was “seeking” for everlasting bread. I said that they asked Jesus for what He said He had to give. The crowd had to believe the words of the Father in the OT Scriptures. Jesus said that those who heard the words of God was “of God”.
John 8:47 (NASB)
47 “He who is of God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you are not of God.”I don’t think you can have it both ways. You can’t say these people were seeking for everlasting bread and then say that they didn’t believe the Father.
Like I said, I didn’t say that.
The crowd was not “of God” since they did not learn from the Father and listen to Him.
I’m not even going to go into the ‘will’ debate at the moment. There is too much other stuff for us to discuss at the present time. But it is interesting how Jesus relates ‘his will’ to ‘heaven’ not just the incarnation. Food for thought!
Jesus came to do His Father’s will. He recognized every one that had been given to Him by His Father. Here is another one who Jesus recognized belonged to the Father:
John 1:47–49 (NASB)
47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, “Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no deceit!”
48 Nathanael said to Him, “How do You know me?” Jesus answered and said to him, “Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you.”
49 Nathanael answered Him, “Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel.”
I think I finally caught up to you Mark. Whew! I will let you catch up again and deal with the questions I gave you.
Gazza,
You said:
The Romans 6 passage dosn’t actually say anyone is dead now rather that the believers should “count themselves dead to sin” Paul then explains what being dead to sin would look like.
What does being dead to sin look like?
Romans 6:12–14 (NASB)
12 Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its lusts,
It means that it has not right to reign in our lives. It also has no right to demand that it be obeyed.
13 and do not go on presenting the members of your body to sin as instruments of unrighteousness; but present yourselves to God as those alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness to God.
Dead to sin means that you do not give your body to sin to be used as an instrument. Instead, being alive from the dead means being alive to God to give Him our bodies to be used as instruments of righteous acts.
14 For sin shall not be master over you, for you are not under law but under grace.
Being dead to sin means that sin cannot make us a slave since being dead to sin means that we are not under the law. We have been placed under grace.
Why did Paul say this?
Romans 6:10–11 (NASB)
10 For the death that He died, He died to sin once for all; but the life that He lives, He lives to God.
11 Even so consider yourselves to be dead to sin, but alive to God in Christ Jesus.
It is because in Jesus’ death, He died to sin once for all and this has an effect on us. Because Jesus died once for all we are to understand that because of Him we are also to be dead to sin. It is a present action that carries makes us dead right now to sin.
Ephesians 2:1–2 (NASB)
1 And you were dead in your trespasses and sins,
2 in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience.
The tense is also present in Ephesians 2. Are we dead to the sin in which we formerly walked? Are we dead to the course of this world and are we dead to the power of the prince that rules this world? We should be if we are in Christ.
Ephesians 2:3 (NASB)
3 Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest.
In verse 3 Paul talks about what we all were. This is not present tense. It is what was, in the past.
Ephesians 2:4–6 (NASB)
4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us,
5 even when we were dead in our transgressions, …
Here again the verb in verse 5 is present tense. And the word translated as “even” is a logical ascensive conjunction.
The word “ascensive” refers to “reaching a climax or crescendo.” Hence an ascensive conjunction is one that adds one last piece of information or comment to a grammatical element (i.e., word, phrase, or clause).
Heiser, M. S. (2005; 2005). Glossary of Morpho-Syntactic Database Terminology.Ephesians 2:4–6 (NASB)
4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us,
5 even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved),
6 and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,
It is God’s riches in mercy that caused us to be (present tense) dead to our sins and alive with Christ. Made alive is indicative aorist.
In the indicative mood, the aorist usually denotes past time,
Heiser, M. S. (2005; 2005). Glossary of Morpho-Syntactic Database Terminology.
“dead to sin” is present tense and “made alive with Christ” is a past action already accomplished.
Is it God’s mercy that we are dead to sin and made alive with Christ? If not why is the verb “eimi” in the present tense while all the other verbs are indicative aorist?
If being dead in transgressions is current then how does that fit with the description “as you used to be” and “lived among them at one time”? It is clearly referring to the state in which they were in before they had faith in Christ. Are the believers still objects of wrath?
It appears to me to be “being dead” (present tense) to what you used to be alive to. The believers were children of wrath when they were alive to their sin nature – and being children of wrath is not present tense. In fact the only present tense is the verb “being” or “eimi” which has to do with being dead to sin.
How do you explain the present tense? In Romans 6:11 we are to count ourselves as dead to sin (present tense) and in Ephesians 2:1 Paul says you “eimi” or “being” (present tense) dead to sins.
You said:
The present tense is referring to the current nature of being dead in transgressions when we were made alive in Christ by God in His mercy.
How is this a “current nature” is it is what one was when they were in sin? “Current nature” and “present tense” are equivalent. It says this is what we are not what we were when we were lost.
This is also consistent with the juxtaposition of the life/death imagery. For if while alive in Christ we are still presently dead in our transgressions then it would be saying that Christs sacrifice in itself was not sufficient would it not?
No, for Christ Himself became dead to sin and in Him we would need to be dead to sin too.
Romans 6:10 (NASB)
10 For the death that He died, He died to sin once for all; but the life that He lives, He lives to God.
Is this not what we are in Christ? Dead to sin AND made alive in Christ?
I am really stymied about how Calvinists can deal with the present tense in Ephesians 2:1. It just doesn’t fit the mold that has been painted.
Cheryl,
“So why is it that God did not take the complete payment of Jesus at the cross and put it to your account at the time that Jesus died? Was His payment not full and complete at that time?”
Let me try to say things again. I’m not sure if you don’t actually understand what I am saying since you keep asking me the same questions.
I believe that the atonement of Christ was effective for what he came to achieve. That is, he did not atone just to make salvation ‘possible’, but he atoned to make salvation effective. It is through the atonement that salvation becomes effective and purposeful. I reject the Arminian position (now I dunno if you agree with classical arminianism) because it only makes salvation ‘possible’. It didn’t actually achieve anything. For an Arminian what makes the atonement actually achieve anything is my own act of autonomous faith- not God’s predetermined plan to save me.
I see that Jesus secured my salvation on the cross by fully atoning for my sin. Because this is achieved by Christ, the Spirit then regenerates my heart to accept God’s gift of salvation.
“So you will agree that there was a condition that must be met first before the atonement can become effective for you?”
I agree that faith in Christ is what saves me. However the atonement is the reason I am saved, not vice versa. The atonement secured salvation for God’s sheep, then when he calls his sheep they listen and follow.
“Is the atonement not complete if it requires our faith? Is it just an offer and not given by Christ before our faith?”
Not at all because you see ‘faith’ as autonomous by the sound of it. The Bible sees it as a gracious gift of God. The atonement was 100% complete and because of that the elect put their trust in Christ. Again it does not happen the other way around. Our atonement doesn’t just dangle in mid air and God is just hoping someone in their autonomous faith takes it. God completes his purpose of what Christ achieved on the cross by bringing in His flock.
“Yes the atonement achieved something for God’s people but it also achieved something for all sinners.”
I agree with this actually. But I do not believe it achieved the same purpose for everyone. Christ only atoned for his sheep, but non believers receive many blessings and grace because of the cross- they just don’t have their sins atoned for because they don’t actually go to heaven.
“Eternal life is justification and yes this is given for all men.”
Cheryl, this is completely false and worries me. Being ‘justified’ is being ‘declared righteous’. Now if all men were declared righteous then none would go to hell. Also justification is only by faith is it not? Now I’m sure you do not believe that all people have faith in Christ, so therefore how can you say that all men are justified. This is another case where you are confusing biblical language.
“If it isn’t universal in both cases, then it doesn’t make sense. We could then say that the “all” that is condemnation isn’t really for all after all.”
Not at all, the context determines how universal language is understood. We know all men fell in Adam from the context
Rom 5:12 Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned—
Death is a consequence of sin. All die therefore all sin. Also verse 18 tells us that the one sin of Adam was condemnation for all, relflecting again on death as a consequence. However Paul himself qualifies that the gift is not like the trespass proving your argument completely false
Rom 5:15 But the free gift is not like the trespass.
Rom 5:16 And the free gift is not like the result of that one man’s sin
So no, the comparison does not have to take universal language the same. The context ought to decide that. The context of Romans makes clear that not all are justified because not all put their faith in Christ. One example should suffice
Rom 5:1 Therefore, since we have been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ.
Faith is what justifies. Not all have faith therefore not all are justified. You point is completely contradictory to the Bible.
“Oh really? Why does God sending His Own Son to die for all not make her more loving and merciful than God sending Jesus to die for just a few select individuals who have been chosen unconditionally?”
Now my assumption here is that you do actually hold to the clear bible teaching on divine foreknowledge. Therefore you would agree that God is creating people he knows will not believe. Thus he is creating people who will go to hell and he knows that, yet he still creates them. Still raises a tension don’t you think.
“but your position has God purposely creating people whom He has chosen them to go to hell and God has chosen to withhold from them what they need to be saved”
Regarding the first point I agree, but so does an Arminian position. God ‘chose’ people according to divine foreknowledge, so he had ‘chosen’ some to be saved and ‘chosen’ others to go to hell. The second point I don’t totally agree with. God is not obligated to save anyone, that’s the first thing, so get that out of your head. It is only by his mercy he chooses to save any. Second, he doesn’t withhold anything because he is not obligated to give it in the first place- he simply leaves people in their sinful state. So no God does not with-hold salvation from them. He simply leaves them, but for his elect he bestows his gift of grace, because that is what grace is- undeserved mercy. It seems to me that you almost believe that God is obligated to save us.
“That sounds a lot like injustice to me and any earthly judge who would act this way would have the world in an uproar about his injustice.”
That’s because you think God is obligated to save everybody- He is not. There is nothing unjust about God choosing to save some who did not deserve to be saved. In fact, this is the heart of the gospel is it not. Grace is only grace when it is underserved otherwise as Paul says, it no longer becomes grace.
“It isn’t logical at all. It creates a God who isn’t Sovereign and who not only lies about his abilities but he also is not able to act in advance but only able to react. What on earth would that God do if one of his elect dies that he was counting on for a work? No. The open theist position is not logical and it is not Biblical. I am quite concerned about you, that you would even consider it logical.”
I told you Arminians don’t like it! But anyway a few comments. The open theist sovereignty is identical to what both you and Kay say. The open theist believes God ‘chose to limit himself’ which is identical to your description of His soveriegnty- he chose not to determine all things unconditionally. Now I said it is logical to the Arminan position, I did not say I think it is logical. I agree with you that it is completely unbiblical. However if one holds to autonomous free-will then one can see the problem if the future is actually fixed- it’s not free at all. An Arminian believes the future is fixed because they believe in divine foreknowledge. However if the future is fixed then it is not free. See the problem? That is precisely why open theism has gained support. The rational logical conclusion of Arminianism leads there.
“Let’s have another look at the verse and compare it to what John himself said in the book of 1 John. John is not going to contradict himself.”
I agree that John did not contradict. In John 11 John is describing believers from the nation of Israel and those ‘scattered abroad’. 1 John 2:2 is describing the same thing ‘all the world’ i.e all the elect from every tribe toungue that are ‘scattered abroad’. Now answer how ones sins are propitiated but not actually propitiated since they go to hell?
“Thanks cobber!”
Lol, it’s good to have abit of humour
“How is it that those who have never had their sins atoned for are commanded to believe (apply) the atonement? Do you not see a contradiction here?”
Not at all. People are born with a corrupt sinful nature that equals eternal punishment. Now if God does not give them the gift of repentance and faith they will be condemned for their unbelief. Like I said earlier, God is not obligated to save anyone- it’s based on mercy and grace not obligation. We tell people to trust in Christ, but if God has not chosen to open their eyes then they will be punished for their unbelief. God simply leaves them in their sinful nature which by nature rejects Him. It is completely just. What is unjust, is that God would send Jesus to die for other people, but that is why God’s mercy and grace are so amazing. It is total undeserved, unconditional grace.
“My friend, Mark, you are adding that into the Scripture, because Jesus never said it. Jesus talked about those who would come to Him, but He never said that He would only atone for those who would come. By adding to the Scripture one goes beyond what is said.”
Ok then. Well maybe you can show me where Jesus said “I died for every single person and paid the price for their sins, but it is autonomous faith which seals the deal”. I’m not the only one who tries to explain their theology. Please don’t be so hypocritical.
“These are Calvinist doctrines but they cannot be proven from the actual Scriptures since to believe them one must add to what is written. That is why I don’t believe in Calvinism. I would rather believe in what is actually written in the Scriptures.”
That is a ridiculous statement. If Calvinism wasn’t proven from the scriptures then you have just condemned a lot of reformed people in Church history. It would be far safer to say that you give a different ‘interpretation’ to the same passages rather than saying Calvinism is not based on scripture. Perhaps you don’t believe in Calvinism for other reasons, since the whole theology is based on Biblical support. Be honest with yourself at least.
“Surely Jesus could have said that clearly. Why didn’t He say that he would save only a select few the God chose? Why didn’t He make it clear that those who did not believe Him had been selected by God to go to hell? Why would He have chosen words that were universal rather than limited? Doesn’t it appear that to accept Calvinism would require a reinterpreting of what has been inspired as universal language? If it is really truth, what should we have to do that?”
A theology is not solely based on the ‘red’ letters of the gospels. Jesus did say that he came to save sinners NOT the righteous. Also he did make clear in Matt 25:31ff that the goats would go to hell but the sheep to eternal glory which was prepared “for you since the creation of the world” (34). Jesus did use limited language – many, sheep and goats, sinners and righteous, healthy and sick. Jesus whole ministry was exclusive and limited. He came for his sheep and for their salvation.
I find it interesting that you accept the BDAG use of ‘world’ but have formerly criticised me for saying that God has a ‘special’ or ‘saving’ love for some and not others. Inconsistency?
“But people are blind for several reasons.”
I agree, and one of those reasons is because they are spiritually ‘dead’ (Eph 2:1) Dead people cannot see, they are blind!
“Drawing is not the same thing as coming.”
I agree, that is why I found it odd that you said about Jn 6 that people had to believe before they could come to Jesus.
“Romans 8:29 does not say “inward call” and the washing by the baptism into Jesus’ death is our justification.”
That is the only way to understand Rom 8:29 since those God calls, he also justifies. God does not call all in the sense of Rom 8 because simply not all are justified. And no, having faith in Christ is what justifies us. It is a declaring of righteousness.
1 Cor 6:11 says three parallel things, you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified. These are three elements of our total salvation. You have again mixed up the text.
“It is Jesus’ blood that justifies and He freely gives His salvation by His death to all.”
Again No! It is faith which justifies us. This is the historic protestant teaching. But of course Jesus death is tied into that.
Rom 5:1 Therefore, since we have been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ.
That is why not all are ‘justified’ because not all have ‘faith’. You might say that Jesus atoned for everyone but to say he justified everyone is going to far. That is not biblical teaching. That is universalism.
“Romans 8:5-8 is not about all.”
I’m surprised and then not surprised. I’m surprised because a while back you agreed that the Bible teaches that we as humans because of Adam have a sinful nature. But then when Rom 8 specifically refers to sinful natures (5) you say it doesn’t apply to all. But then I’m not surprised because of your other views on other passages. You just seem to inconsistent.
“Ephesians 2:8, 9 is not talking about faith as a gift because the term is singular and faith is said to be the thing that the gift (salvation) comes through. If faith were also a gift, then the Greek term would have been plural.”
Not true. Notice in verse 8 what is the first word. It is the feminine definite article encompassing the entire verse “by (the) grace you have seen saved, by (the) faith. The definite article links into the noun ‘faith’ sandwiching everything in between, therefore the singular supports that, since what is in view in the singular gift is the whole statement “by grace you have been saved through faith”. (The) grace and (the) faith are both gifts but expressed in the singular because of the precise grammatical construction. They are not of ourselves so we cannot boast. Your point is wrong.
“In Romans 12:3, faith is a genitive.”
Nothing you said here disproves my point. In fact your own source cited that it is something ‘given’ to the believers. That is, anyone in Christ has nothing to boast about precisely because it is God who gave them their salvation including their faith. Also remember that the genitive case denotes possession and In this case who is the faith linked back to- God. It is the gift of God. So therefore again the greek grammar proves my precise point. Faith in the genitive is the possessive of God who as this verse saids gives or apportions to each member of the body. So yes faith here again is the gift of God.
“There is a difference between giving of the person and enabling them to believe.”
I’m not so sure. Look at how the terms are used interchangeably in John 6
Joh 6:37 All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out.
Joh 6:39 And this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up on the last day.
Joh 6:44 No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day.
Joh 6:65 And he said, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father.”
The NIV translates the last one ‘enabled’. So it appears that the three terms ‘gives’, enables/granted and ‘draws’ mean similar things. They all relate to the father giving to the Son. The first three relate the truth of assurance of salvation. The last one relates back to the third one. To me John 6 shows that these terms are synonomous.
“No, not true. We are all commanded to fear God and God is righteous enough to give us the ability to fear Him.”
I like this. It seems you finally admit that it is God who ‘gives’ us the ability to fear Him. You have never admitted that before. You have previously said that Job ‘fearing God’ was from his own free-will. I guess you have changed your mind. You realise that unregenerate people cannot fear God without his gift to do so.
Mark #337
It will likely take me awhile to answer your comments. My time is limited once again as tomorrow my son arrives with his new fiancée whom we have not yet met so I will want to spend time with them and won’t have as much time for the computer until they leave. If I get some time during their visit to work through your comments, I will do so, but just so you know why I am absent for awhile this time. I am also going comment by comment without reading through it all, so hopefully you won’t be upset with me if I miss something. It is easier for me to deal with the comments this way.
Mark, you said:
“john 12:32 (NASB95)
32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.”Jesus as God said He would draw “all men” to Himself. I believe Him”
Go back to the greek Cheryl and you will see that the grammar does not include ‘men’ in it. So Jesus simply saids i will draw ‘all’ to myself- all what?, ahould be our question? I could insert all ‘babies if i want to but that does not make it right to insert ‘men’. You assume every single person, but the text does not support that.
You are right that the text doesn’t say “men” but it isn’t uncommon for the “all” to be listed without the term “men” when clearly people are meant . In John 2:24 Jesus said the same thing about “all” and the term “men” isn’t there either. But the context of both passages assumes “people”.
John 2:24 (NASB)
24 But Jesus, on His part, was not entrusting Himself to them, for He knew all men,
So, what is the concern in John 12:32? It can’t be a question of the extent of the number since Jesus said all nota few. All what? All babies? All butterflies? What does the context say?
In the context immediately before the verse, Jesus is talking about the judgment that would come upon the whole world.
John 12:31–32 (NASB)
31 “Now judgment is upon this world; now the ruler of this world will be cast out.
32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.”
Jesus uses the general term “this world” and the ruler of “this world” and in preparation for the judgment, he will draw “all” to Himself.
Whenever the term “all” is used the word means “the whole” or “every” unless there is a limiter in the text that would preclude some from being included. The text appears pretty clear that Jesus meant just want He said (all) since He is talking about the judgment. After He said these words, He said some valuable words to the unbelieving crowd.
John 12:35–36 (NASB)
35 So Jesus said to them, “For a little while longer the Light is among you. Walk while you have the Light, so that darkness will not overtake you; he who walks in the darkness does not know where he goes.
36 “While you have the Light, believe in the Light, so that you may become sons of Light.”
These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them.
Jesus commands the crowd to believe in Him in order that they may become sons of God (sons of Light). How could they become sons of God if Jesus did not die for them? Certainly they were also included in the general term “all” and if unbelievers who never became believers were included in the “all”, then why should we not believe Jesus when He said that He would draw all to Himself? I have accepted that Jesus would draw all people to Himself because I don’t have any prejudice that would not allow me to accept what Jesus said within the context of the passage.
So please answer me a few questions on this verse regarding your own view:
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If Jesus did not mean all “men”, then what “all” did He mean? And what is in the passage that caused you to understand that Jesus could not have meant all people?
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If Jesus didn’t mean “all” but rather He meant “a few” then why did Jesus not say what He meant? If He really meant “a few” and said “all” then wouldn’t that be deceptive and untrue?
We see in John 6 that only those the Father ‘draws’ are the ones who come to Jesus and thus believe. So if the Father drew all people it would in essence mean that all are saved. The grammar does not support your claim nor does the other passages that use the term ‘draw’.
That is actually not true. The reason is because “draw” is not a synonym for “come”. The Father will “draw” all but the ones drawn must also “come”.
Let’s look at this passage carefully:
John 6:44 (NASB)
44 “No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day.
“No one can come”- coming an active verb that is something that we do. It is an action that is carried out by us, while the verb “draws” is an active verb that the Father does. They are not synonyms. They are actions done by different people. So while the passage says that no one is able to come (no one has the power of them self to come) unless the Father draws that person, it doesn’t say conversely that all that the Father draws will come. We cannot assume that all that are drawn will come because the passage doesn’t say it. The ones who will be raised up are all the ones who come, not all the ones who are drawn.
So what we see in John 6 without reading into the passage is that no one come to Jesus unless they are drawn by the Father. And all those who come will be raised up by Jesus. There is not a single passage of Scripture that I know of that says that all who are drawn by the Father will come to Jesus. What John 6 says is that all those who are given to Jesus will come. It is a big difference. The term “given” and the term “drawn” again are not synonyms. So without any outside prejudice, when we come to this passage, and in the context of Jesus words in chapter 12 we can see that all will be drawn by Jesus (john 12:32) yet not all will come to Jesus (John 6:64). But all those who are given to Jesus by the Father will be both drawn by the Father (John 6:44) and will come to Jesus (John 6:37) and of those given to Jesus none will be lost (John 6:39), and all will be raised (John 6:39) and all will believe in Jesus (John 6:40).
It is also important to understand what the greek word for ‘draw’ is, according to BDAG it is a ‘dragging’, thus why reformers use the term ‘Iresistable Grace’. Grace can not be resisted for God’s elect since he in essence ‘drags’ them to himself.
The problem with this understanding is that “drawing” or “pulling” propels one along, but it cannot be an irresistible instigator of “coming” since “coming” is an active verb of our own action not God’s action. If it was indeed an irresistible action of God’s then the “coming” would be His action not ours.
to move an object from one area to another in a pulling motion, draw, with implication that the object being moved is incapable of propelling itself or in the case of pers. is unwilling to do so voluntarily, in either case with implication of exertion on the part of the mover
Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed.) (318).
While God pulls us towards Jesus, the term for what God does in compelling us is a term that is not irresistible.
Luke 14:23 (NASB)
23 “And the master said to the slave, ‘Go out into the highways and along the hedges, and compel them to come in, so that my house may be filled.
The same term for “compel” is used in Acts 26:11 and the force of the compelling is successfully resisted.
Acts 26:11 (NASB)
11 “And as I punished them often in all the synagogues, I tried to force them to blaspheme; and being furiously enraged at them, I kept pursuing them even to foreign cities.
The fact is that Jesus said He would draw all, but His drawing has been successfully resisted by many. In the OT the pleading of God and the work of the Holy Spirit was also successfully resisted so there is nothing that says that God’s drawing is irresistible in sinful men.
You said:
So there is not one verse in the Bible that says God draws ‘ALL MEN’, or ‘ALL PEOPLE’ to himself.
John 12:32 is that verse. I know that it goes against your theology, but I personally would have a problem with a theology that contradicts Scripture and especially one that contradicts the Lord Jesus.
I will get to your other comments as I have time.
Hi Gazza,
As far as English translations, here are three translations that list the verb as present and I am also going to copy the NASB with the note that the literal is the present “being”.
Ephesians 2:1 (YLT)
1 Also you—being dead in the trespasses and the sins,Ephesians 2:1 (DARBY)
1 and you, being dead in your offences and sins—Ephesians 2:1 (WUESTNT)
1 And you being dead with reference to your trespasses and sins,

Also the tense is exactly the same in Eph. 2:1 as it is in Col. 2:13. I am copying below several translations that properly list the verb as present tense in Col. 2:13.
Colossians 2:13 (NKJV)
13 And you, being dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He has made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses,Colossians 2:13 (ASV)
13And you, being dead through your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, you, I say, did he make alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses;Colossians 2:13 (Wordstudy KJV)
13 And you, being dead, in your sins, and the uncircumcision of your flesh,, hath he [quickened together] with him, having forgiven you all, trespasses;Colossians 2:13 (WUESTNT)
13–17 And you being dead with reference to your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He gave life together with Him, having in grace forgiven you all your trespasses,Colossians 2:13 (DARBY)
13 And you, being dead in offences and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, he has quickened together with him, having forgiven us all the offences;Colossians 2:13 (YLT)
13 And you—being dead in the trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh—He made alive together with him, having forgiven you all the trespasses,
I should also note the translation names. Wuest NT is:

YLT is Young’s literal translation:

I hope this helps and thanks for asking!
Also I am including pictures of the Greek grammar from both Eph. 2:1 and Col. 2:13
Here is Ephesians 2:1 –

Here is Col. 2:13 –

Gazza,
What you need to realise is that the Koine Greek present tense, is not the same as the English present tense. So therefore if a greek verb is in the present tense, it does not neccessarily imply a continuous state of action (contra Cheryl’s interpretation). The context of the passage decides the time factors involved. Now if it was a participle it would be something that goes on and on and on. However the present tense can be an action that ceases to exist i.e- past tense or as people say ‘undefined’ aspect.
So you are right to think that in Eph 2 Paul has a past tense view in mind. It is the context that determines this usage. Paul is relating between a previous condition (dead) and a new condition (being alive). The conjunction in verse 4 ‘But God’ rightly reveals this to us. We were at one time dead in sin (present greek, but past meaning) ‘but God’ has made us alive. The whole context of the chapter confirms what you believe, thus why so many translations decide to translate into the english past tense- it captures accurately what Paul’s meaning is. The use of the greek present tense (as opposed to imperfect or aorist) makes this passage more emphatic. It shows the nature that people were and are in, namely dead in sin. It helps emphasise the actual grace that is bestowed upon us by God.
Don’t be fooled by Cheryl’s argument of the greek present tense. Her interpretation is not correct. It is the context that decides the meaning of the greek present tense, and in this case the meaning is clear. Paul is contrasting a previous condition with a new one- dead/alive! Thus the clear meaning of the present tense here is an undefined action as opposed to a continuous one.
Also notice that the translations that Cheryl gave that do translate into a english present tense ‘being dead’ does not exclude the past tense meaning- “you being dead, God made alive”. The context of the usage still allows a past/new contrast.
Basically my point is, the greek present tense can have a non continuous action meaning which basically translates into English past tense. All the terms sound messy, but all you need to realise is that what you believe about the text is supported grammatically by the Greek.
Mark,
It is interesting that you admit that the tense is not set as a past tense and the that it can be something that goes on and on and on if it is a participle. The grammar is present verb active participle. Perhaps you should take another look.
The grammar is consistent with Col. 2:13 and it is consistent with Romans 6:11.
You said:
Paul is relating between a previous condition (dead) and a new condition (being alive).
But Paul relates the condition in Romans 6:11 as both dead and alive. Since Christ died to sin and we are in Him, we are dead to sin and are to consider ourselves this way — yet alive to Christ since He is the one who died on our behalf.
The way I interpreted the passage is not invalid and is consistent with the rest of the Bible. I have a friend who writes Greek grammar books and I have discussed this issue with him. He has admitted to me that the grammar can be taken as present tense the way I describe it despite your assurance to Gazza that the grammar should be taken as a past tense and that the present is basically invalid. This is not true. Not only can the passage be taken as a continued being of our being “dead to sin” but the versions that show the grammar as a place of “being” is itself completely in union with what Paul writes in Romans 6:11. If God had wanted to make it clear that it was a past state, He could have inspired it this way, don’t you think?
This is something that we can all search and dig deeply into God’s word for the truth is worth the effort.
The question here is whether one must take the passage as if we were raised with Christ before we believed in Him. Was Christ “in” us before we were believers? There are so many questions that are needed to be asked and answered regarding the Calvinist position because any position that claims to be the truth should be able to withstand a challenge.
I sure do appreciate being able to dialog with Calvinists here as the safety of being brethren in Christ in a relationship of family keeps us able to dialog without fear of rejection. At least that is how I feel on my end and I assume (hope) it is true on your end too.
Mark,
To carry on with your comments:
“Yes. Permission is granted to anyone who is thirsty to come.”
You did not answer my question. Does God ‘grant’ everyone to ‘come/believe’, yes or no.
The answer is both “yes” and “no” because it is conditional. “Yes” in that permission is granted to anyone who is thirsty to come and “no” because those who do not respond to the light that God has given them are not granted the ability to come to Jesus.
I quoted the verse showing that any who are thirsty may come. Here are the verses for those who are not granted permission:
John 3:19–21 (NASB)
19 “This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil.
20 “For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed.
21 “But he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God.”
-Those who do not want the Light and who love the darkness will not be brought to Jesus while those who practice the truth will come to the Light.
John 5:37–38 (NASB)
Witness of the Father
37 “And the Father who sent Me, He has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His form.
38 “You do not have His word abiding in you, for you do not believe Him whom He sent.
-Those who refuse to have God’s word abide in them will not be granted to come to Jesus.
John 5:39–42 (NASB)
Witness of the Scripture
39 “You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; it is these that testify about Me;
40 and you are unwilling to come to Me so that you may have life.
41 “I do not receive glory from men;
42 but I know you, that you do not have the love of God in yourselves.
-Those who are religious but who that do not have the love of God in them are not granted to come to Jesus.
John 5:44 (NASB)
44 “How can you believe, when you receive glory from one another and you do not seek the glory that is from the one and only God?
-Those who do not seek God’s glory but turn aside to seek glory from man will not be granted to come to Jesus.
John 5:46–47 (NASB)
46 “For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he wrote about Me.
47 “But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?”
-Those who refuse to believe what God has already said will not be granted to come to Jesus.
Since none of your ‘proof texts’ show this it is easy to see that God does not allow everyone to come to Jesus. This is why Paul told Timothy to pray that God would ‘grant’ people to come to a knowledge of the truth.
2Ti 2:25 correcting his opponents with gentleness. God may perhaps grant them repentance leading to a knowledge of the truth,
We can pray that a person will be brought to the place of repentance, but repentance is something that the person themselves must do. And if the person rejects God Himself, he may not be granted repentance just like Esau.
Hebrews 12:16–17 (NASB)
16 that there be no immoral or godless person like Esau, who sold his own birthright for a single meal.
17 For you know that even afterwards, when he desired to inherit the blessing, he was rejected, for he found no place for repentance, though he sought for it with tears.
You said:
Just because people are told to come to Jesus, does not mean they can or are able. Only God can make someone alive and new- he grants it.
God doesn’t demand that people come to Him for forgiveness and then refuse to give them what they need to obey Him. Only those who refuse to use what God has already freely given them will be disallowed to come.
I’m gald you admit that God ‘chose’ Israel over the other nations. Perhaps TL can now see that he/she does not understand God’s electing purposes for some and not for others.
But the election was not unconditionally for salvation. The election was for an earthly purpose as God’s representative on the earth.
“Please show me who are the ones that God wills to have mercy on and who are the ones that He chooses to harden? God gives His answer in the Scriptures. What do the Scriptures say?”
Now one example is God hardening Pharoah during the Exodus of Israel. The first mention to the hardening of Pharoah is from God in Ex 4:21- God will harden his heart. We see it again in Ex 7:3 that it will be God who hardens. Now this all BEFORE the plagues have even begun, so God is not secondary to hardening.
God explained his purpose to Moses that it would be for His own power to be revealed. However but His ultimate knowledge of what Pharoah would do is never done until Pharoah first hardens his own heart. The first time that it is mentioned that God hardened Pharoah’s heart was after Pharoah had hardened his own heart. God knew it would happen, but God did not strengthen Pharoah’s resolve until Pharoah had the resolve first.
Also we see God’s mercy on the Israelites over the Egyptians. God chose them over and above the Egyptians Ex 6:6-8. God will redeem them and THEN they will know that he is God. It is clear that God’s actions preceed the actions of the people. God’s mercy or hardening is not conditioned on what we do.
God’s choice for people for an earthly purpose is His choice alone. It is another matter regarding eternal salvation. We can talk more about this when we get to Romans. Let’s leave this one for now until we get there.
That’s all I could get through for today. I am back with family tomorrow so I’ll get back to your other comments as soon as I can.
Also, please make sure to keep us all up to date when your new baby arrives. What a blessed time this is for you!
Gazza,
One more comment on the present tense. Jesus said in John 8:58-
John 8:58 (NASB)
58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”
God inspired the present tense here too and because of this grammar usage, the Jews took up stones to kill Jesus for they understood the implications of the present tense.

So why did God inspire the present tense also in Ephesians 2:1? That is a question we all need to consider.
Here is what God could have inspired if He wished to show a past happening:
1 Corinthians 6:11 (NASB)
11 Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.

Notice that the verb is not present but it is imperfect.
Here is another one:
John 15:19 (NASB)
19 “If you were of the world, the world would love its own; but because you are not of the world, but I chose you out of the world, because of this the world hates you.

John 15:19 is another one which is clearly about the past and it is inspired as such with the imperfect tense.
One last Scripture because I respect the two or three witnesses requirement to establish a fact:
1 Corinthians 12:2 (NASB)
2 You know that when you were pagans, you were led astray to the mute idols, however you were led.
Again the verb is clearly meant as the past and the verb is once again in the imperfect.

So the $64,000 dollar question is why did God inspire Ephesians 2:1 in the present tense and not the imperfect tense which would show a past state? If we believe that the Bible is completely inspired including the grammar and the inspired words, this is a valid question.
Of course those who don’t agree with me in the full inspiration of the Scriptures can make the verb to be whatever they want because they don’t agree with me that the grammar is inspired while I am stuck having to deal with the inspired grammar and to make sense of the passage with that exact grammar. For me it is a position of wanting to be completely open to the truth of God’s Word and my sincere desire to know exactly what God meant with every piece of evidence that He gave.
If I am going to be a lover of the truth, I cannot believe any kind of doctrine that does not line up with the inspired grammar, the inspired words and the inspired context. I will reject that kind of doctrine no matter who teaches it. This is the reason why only the proof texts of Calvinists are important to me right now. I don’t believe in Scripture ping pong. Scripture does not conflict with itself so battling proof texts does not work with me. I want to see the key texts that claim to dispute the truth that I have seen from the Scripture that tells me that God loves everyone and sent Jesus to die for all as “the many” not just a “few” select ones. When each supposed proof text falls before my eyes when I examine it closely from the inspired words, the inspired grammar and the inspired text, then I can be certain that I have the truth of God’s Word and I can confidently hold on to that truth. It is then and only then when my own “proof texts” hold their weight because the opposing Scriptures have now become my own strength – the ones that I can confidently use to support my own Biblical position.
This is the strategy that God has given me to work successfully with any opposing the truth and I pray that God will grant those who are willing to allow God to work in their hearts, to rethink their position so that they are led to God’s full knowledge of His own truth that is without contradiction. I have seen hundreds of people come through my home as they worked their way out of the Jehovah’s Witnesses and other cults. Not all came to Christ. But those that did were willing to examine their long-held doctrine by the clear truth of God’s Word in context. And the freedom that they received was amazing! It was always God who got the glory because it was His Word that held the answers that exposed the misrepresentations of the Truth.
Hi Cheryl,
Thankyou for your comments. A few points… you are correct that the verb to be in verse 1 is a present participle- I missed that and I’m glad you corrected me. However this does not change a thing, since a present participle is used as a contrast. For example it is very hard to translate that into English, but the most ‘wooden’ approach is to apply the word ‘while’. Thus the verse would read…”while you were dead in your trespasses…God made you alive”, thus the present participle stills gives the contrasting effect- thus why it is in the present tense. At the very time when God made us alive in Christ, we were presently dead in sin. So therefore the present participle of ‘to be’ still in effect constrasts a previous state to a new one.
Now like I have said the context ought to decide. Now it is clear in verses 1-10 that Paul is constrating a past situation with a new. He is not saying you can be both dead and alive at the same time. My position (and in fact pretty much all greek commentators) is also confirmed by the rest of the chapter. Look at verses 11 to the end of the chapter. Paul is calling them to ‘remember’ their ‘flesh’ nature and how they were seperated from Christ, but now in Christ they have been changed.
So although the present can imply a continuous event, to interpret in this way divorces the verse from the context of the passage.
Now in relation to Rom 6:11 you have made the same mistake. Look at the conjunctions ‘men’ and ‘de’ Now if you know how these conjunctions work, you would know that when the two are used in the constructing precisely like Rom 6:11, a contrast is being made. So the verse essentially said “consider yourselves to be (on the one hand) dead to sin but (on the other hand) alive to God”. See the contrast? The conjunctions are used grammatically in this way to make that contrast. So no, Paul is not saying you can be both dead and alive at the same time. We are dead to sin because we are alive in Christ, in the same way as Eph 2, when we were dead in sins, but are now alive in Christ.
“This is something that we can all search and dig deeply into God’s word for the truth is worth the effort.”
This is very true. But the problem I see with your view, is that you are divorcing the verses from their context, and therefore not allowing the actual inspired grammar to function properly. Sure a present tense can be a continuous state of being, as your grammar friend has pointed out, but and it’s a big but, the context always decides the meaning.You need to show from the context of Eph 2 how your grammar construction makes sense. As for Roman’s 6, you are simply wrong becasue the conjunctions are clear and cannot be interpreted in the way you have said.
Cheryl
“So the $64,000 dollar question is why did God inspire Ephesians 2:1 in the present tense and not the imperfect tense which would show a past state? If we believe that the Bible is completely inspired including the grammar and the inspired words, this is a valid question.
Of course those who don’t agree with me in the full inspiration of the Scriptures can make the verb to be whatever they want because they don’t agree with me that the grammar is inspired while I am stuck having to deal with the inspired grammar and to make sense of the passage with that exact grammar. For me it is a position of wanting to be completely open to the truth of God’s Word and my sincere desire to know exactly what God meant with every piece of evidence that He gave.”
This is very misleading and wrong. Does the present tense in the greek have to always be a continuous state of being? Yes or No? Of course it does not! So what you have said above, as if you are the only person dealing with the precise grammar is terribly misleading. Let me say it again. A present tense verb can have two functions or meaning- 1) a continual state of being or the process is continuing, 2) the undefined aspect which can either be just the default position OR it can be used to deliberately oppose #1.
As a greek scholar I am surprised at your comments. It could be true that Eph 2 could have been in the imperfect tense, but it is not. But from the context of Eph 2 it is clear that the present particple is not used as a continual state of being, but as an emphatic remark to show us (and you) how merciful God is in Christ, by making us alive, when we were hopelessly dead in sin. So if you were serious about your claims to know the truth of the grammar you would not say the things that you have. You would realise that the present tense verbs can be used and mean different things to your proposal. Please be honest with your readers about that.
You can give your interpretation of a passage and that is fine, but do not mishandle how the greek can actually function in a given context. To do so is not a good thing to do. You ought to be faithful to the grammar and explore ALL the functions of it as determined by the context around it. Such far, you are failing heavily to read the context and have approached both Eph 2:1, and Rom 6:11 with a preconcieved ideas about the grammar.
So no, you have not dismantled or disproven this ‘calvinist proof text’, quite the contrary actually. You have shown your own bias and neglected how the actual grammar can and has functioned in this passage.
Cheryl,
I agree with you that people cannot come to God because they do not love Him. But I guess the difference is because I believe that unregenerate people are unable (Rom 8:6-7 makes that clear).
However yo have still failed to show where the Bible teaches prevenient grace to therefore show people are able to do things which you believe are required. I disagree however with all the conditions you are adding onto salvation. Initally you just said faith but now you have extended that several fold all BEFORE one is even saved. For example here are your own words of conditions one must meet before being allowed to come to God- “practise the truth”, “have God’s word abide in them”, “have the love of God”, “seek God’s glory”, “refuse to believe”. So whats that…5 extra conditions one must meet before they are allowed to be saved. Please explain how you do not teach a works based gospel?
“We can pray that a person will be brought to the place of repentance, but repentance is something that the person themselves must do. And if the person rejects God Himself, he may not be granted repentance just like Esau.”
First, I would like you to be consistent In your claim of seeking the truth of the ispired grammar and actually deal with 2 Tim 2:25. If God has granted everyone the ability to repent (as you believe) why does Paul tell Timothy to ask God to grant it to certain people. Isn’t Timothy praying for something that God has already done? Also note the inspired grammar that siads God “grants them repentance” not “the ability to repent”. Repentance itself is something God grants- it is a gift. Second your own argument about Esau falls apart since the text you sight saids that Esau “sought for repentance with tears”. Why wasn’t he forgiven then? He sought repentance with tears! Clearly though it was not ‘granted’ by God to him.
“God doesn’t demand that people come to Him for forgiveness and then refuse to give them what they need to obey Him.”
Here is your wrong assumption again that God is obligated to us. Yes God does demand them to repent, yet while they are still in their sinful state they will never do it. God bestows mercy on whomever he wills and leaves the rest in their own sinful condition. This is again grace. Grace is undeserved mercy, not deserved mercy for my ‘good works’ or ‘conditions’ I have met.
“But the election was not unconditionally for salvation. The election was for an earthly purpose as God’s representative on the earth.”
Nonesense. “Not all Israel is Israel”- individuals? Mercy on whom he will- mercy is grace- individuals. Some clay for noble purposes, some for not- individuals. Objects of mercy/objects of wrath- individuals. Not to mention the end of chapter 9 and chapter 10 which is clearly dealing with salvation via faith not works. So again your presumption divorces the context of the passage.
“However but His ultimate knowledge of what Pharoah would do is never done until Pharoah first hardens his own heart.”
Does Exodus 4 and 7 say “God foreknew what Pharoah would do and therefore after Pharoah does harden his heart, then I will harden it”, or does it say clearly “that God will be the one who hardens Pharoahs heart”. The verse is not passive and observatory. Dance all you like, but the text speaks for itself. Again please be consistent with you interest in ‘precise grammar’.
Mark you said:
By the way here are some true representations of what the Present Greek Tense denotes or means… The durative (linear or progressive) in the present stem: the action is represented as durative (in progress) and either as timeless (????? ? ????) or as taking place in present time (including, of course, duration on one side or the other of the present moment: ????? ‘I am writing [now]’;…The present stem may also be iterative: ??????? ‘threw repeatedly (or each time)’. (Blass & DeBrunner, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, p. 166.)
Sorry my blog program doesn’t allow the Greek characters and that is why the question marks showed up. I haven’t been able to fix that.
The quotes that you made actually refute your view and support mine. DeBrunner shows that the present tense is action in progress or timeless (i.e. “being” such as Jesus saying that He is the “I AM” which is a present tense sense of “being” which does not end thus timeless) Where is the present tense listed as a past action? You gave no reference for DeBrunner. And for Ephesians 2:1 in the timeless sense would mean a “being” that is constantly “dead” to something. It was hardly helpful to your position at all.
Now in the A.T. Robertson quote, if you had kept on going on pgs 824 – 825 it would have caused you some trouble.
Time in the participle is only relative to the principal verb. It is thus kind of action, not the time of the action, that is expressed in these forms….It is only by the augment (probably an adverb) that past time is clearly expressed.2 “Homer and later Greek writers often use the present with an adverb of time instead of a past tense, a construction which has an exact parallel in Sanskrit and which is therefore supposed to be Indo-Germanic.”… But past time was objective and the three kinds of action (punctiliar, durative, perfected) were regularly expressed with the tenses (aorist, imperfect, past perfect). There is Aktionsart also in the present and future time, but the tense development did not go on to the full extent here. There are only two tense-forms in the present and practically only one in the future. But both punctiliar and linear action are expressed, but not differentiated, in the present time by the same tense, as is true also of the future. The kinds of action exist, but separate tense-forms unfortunately do not occur.4 There might thus have been nine tenses in the indicative: three punctiliar (past, present, future), three linear (past, present, future), three perfect (past, present, future).5 Because of this difference between the indicative and the other moods in the matter of time some grammars6 give a separate treatment to the indicative tenses. It is not an easy matter to handle, but to separate the indicative perhaps accents the element of time unduly. Even in the indicative the time element is subordinate to the kind of action expressed. A double idea thus runs through tense in the indicative (kind of action, time of the action).
Robertson, A. (1919; 2006). A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (824–825).
We see that Robertson affirms that the time element is relative in the participle to the principal verb which is “being”. He also says that past time is clearly expressed only by the augment which is probably an adverb. Where is such an adverb of time in Ephesians 2:1 that clearly expresses past time? It doesn’t qualify for a “clearly expressed” past time per A.T. Robertson in the very pages that you quoted from. It must be a disappointment that he doesn’t give you the backing that you were looking for. Robertson also says: “But past time was objective and the three kinds of action (punctiliar, durative, perfected) were regularly expressed with the tenses (aorist, imperfect, past perfect).” As far as action what is “regularly expressed” as “past time” is three tense and present tense is not listed here. I am wondering why you didn’t quote further from Robertson? Is it because the present time and/or the present state of being (without end) fits with how I have interpreted the passage and it falls short of a proven past time tense for you?
You said:
Finally here is a good definition of how the greek tenses work
The issue of what is the “being” that is timeless and the actual presen tense is simply not helpful for you in trying to prove that a state of being is no long applicable but only in the past.
Here is a thoughtful presentation of how the Greek tenses work from a fellow who I dialoged with years back on the women’s issue. I think that his presentation is clear and consistent and he presents the issues of the present tense in a way that the layman can understand:
When we think of tense, we usually think only in terms of the TIME of the action: Past, present, and future.
While the Greek language has these distinctions, there is also an equal emphasis on the TYPE of action and whether it is viewed as continuously happening or as happening in a single point of time.
The technical terms for these are “punctiliar action” (point action) and “linear action” (continuous or line action).
- PRESENT TENSE.
This generally indicates continuous action in the present time (If we are continually confessing our sin… – 1 John 1:9).
It is the linear tense.
Jesus uses the present tense when he says “Before Abraham was, I AM” (John 8:58). The emphasis here is that He is continually existing – there is no beginning or end of His existence in view. There are other uses of the present tense.
A successive use of the present is seen in 1 Corinthians 15:31 where Paul says, “I am dying daily.” This implication is that this is something that takes place on a regular basis.
John continues about the expression of past action:
- IMPERFECT TENSE.
This tense is also linear. It describes continuous action in the PAST. It is used three times in John 1:1…
“In the beginning CONTINUALLY WAS the Word, and the Word CONTINUALLY WAS with God, and the Word CONTINUALLY WAS God.”
Another express of past tense is the plurperfect:
- PLUPERFECT TENSE.
This is the perfect tense of the past. It describes action that took place in a point in past time and which had results that continued for a time, but which then ceased.
So my question remains where is the proof that the present tense of Ephesians 2:1 is “clearly expressed” as a past action or a sense of “being” that was but no longer is? What appears to be consistent is that the grammatical marks are what is key that would make a present tense to be a past action. There has to be additional grammar that would define the structure of the sentence as past action that ended. It isn’t derived from the context but from grammar. Do you have any proof that the context is what defines the “past time” from a present verb? Who are you going to quote that says this?
I am still behind in answering your comments but my family is here another couple of days and it is difficult to keep up as it is. I hope that you continue to have patience with me, Bud.
Mark,
You said to TL:
I appreciate your call for us all to be in continual repentance- i couldn’t agree more. But maybe you can show me if the Cannanites in the conquering were given that opportunity to repent and enter covenant with Yahweh? Like it or not, God has always chosen some and not others, both in regards to salvation and in regards to earthly purpose.
I think that TL can quite properly give their own response but I also want to respond because I think that the question is worthy of answering.
First of all the nations were given opportunity to repent. The LORD God said:
Jeremiah 18:7–8 (NASB)
7 “At one moment I might speak concerning a nation or concerning a kingdom to uproot, to pull down, or to destroy it;
8 if that nation against which I have spoken turns from its evil, I will relent concerning the calamity I planned to bring on it.
God sent Jonah to the Ninevites because of His care and concern for them. God warned them because He wanted them to repent. There is no indication that the prophesies of destruction that He gave regarding the Cannanites would have been any different in God relenting had they turned from their evil and repented.
And as far as other nations being a part of God’s covenant, God established His covenant even with the aliens who were within Israel’s midst and even with those who were not present.
Deuteronomy 29:10–15 (NASB)
10 “You stand today, all of you, before the LORD your God: your chiefs, your tribes, your elders and your officers, even all the men of Israel,
11 your little ones, your wives, and the alien who is within your camps, from the one who chops your wood to the one who draws your water,
12 that you may enter into the covenant with the LORD your God, and into His oath which the LORD your God is making with you today,
13 in order that He may establish you today as His people and that He may be your God, just as He spoke to you and as He swore to your fathers, to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
14 “Now not with you alone am I making this covenant and this oath,
15 but both with those who stand here with us today in the presence of the LORD our God and with those who are not with us here today
There is no question that God cares about the nations outside of Israel and was willing to bring into the covenant those who would join themselves with the LORD God.
Also you said:
Also Cheryl has completely failed to deal with the grammar of 2 Tim 2:25 which shows that repentance is a gift of God. Repentance is something that is given by God. Maybe you would like to deal with it instead? Or perhaps you can show me passages which reveal that God has enabled all to repent and believe, but it’s their free-will that stops them.
I have already dealt with this issue and I am continuing to work as I can on your comments and questions. Remember I asked you to be patient regarding my time? I would ask that you also be respectful and not accuse me of completely failing to deal with an issue that you brought up when you know that I am behind and I have explained why I am behind. I have yet to disregard any passage or grammar that you have brought up and if I have failed in any one thing, it would never be intentional. When I get behind it is easy to miss one small item yet I have given a consistent stand of working through each statement that you have made. Most would not even attempt to do that, but I like to be thorough and I have nothing to fear.
So if you could apologize for trying to rush me when I have company and be patient with me as I asked you to be, then we should be able to continue hitting each and every issue in a respectful and consistent way. Fair enough?
Lastly you said:
Maybe you can explain how the atonement doesn’t actually atone but only makes us ‘savable’ until we add the rest?
I don’t know anyone who says that the atonement doesn’t actually atone. Your misunderstanding really baffles me. Didn’t you used to be an Arminian or at least a non-Calvinist? Then why is it that you have a problem understanding what you should have clearly understood before you became a Calvinist? You say that I don’t understand Calvinism, yet I am working hard to both understand and to be fair with a representation of the position even though I have never been a Calvinist. Yet you misrepresent the Arminian and non-Calvinist position quite consistently even though you were one. I do not understand why that is. Can you help me? I am sincerely asking and not making fun of you. I just don’t get it how come you cannot understand the camp where you used to belong to. Or is it that you just never understood the position yourself so that when a straw man was created, you easily accepted that as a refutation? Or is it because of something else? If you can, please help me to understand what goes on in your head that would make you say such things. Thanks!
Well that is about all I can do for tonight. Everyone is long ago in bed. My son says that I stay up way too late. That may be true, but it seems like late nights are the time when I can devote time to my blog and this subject without distraction. But I still need my sleep so that I can give fully of myself to my visitors.
Mark, I have also been thinking a lot about that new baby of yours. I hope that he/she comes soon and that your joy will be full!
BTW, interesting discussion on Greek tenses. This helps.
Cheryl,
I’m a little perplexed with you. As a greek scholar you are being totally unfaithful to how the greek language functions. I have agreed with you that the present indicate can have a linear function. However as I have stated, that is not always the case. The context, adverbs etc determine it’s function and thus is translation and interpretation. But you seem to wish to dismiss this clear fact of greek grammar. Let me show your readers just a few example to prove that the present indicate verb can be used to have a past or future meaning.
Mat 3:1 In those days John the Baptist came preaching…
‘Came’ here is the present indicate, yet the context reveals this is a past action.
Mat 13:44 “Again the kingdom of heaven is like treasure hidden in a field, which a man found and hid; and for joy over it he goes and sells all that he has and buys that field.”
‘buys’ here is the present indicate as are ‘goes, sells and has’. The action however has occurred in the past: the man took the money, paid and the deed was done.
The use of the present in this effect relates the hearer and reader into almost a present position, yet the context shows a past action.
Also the present takes a future meaning in some contexts.
John 14:3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am.”
‘will come’ is a present indicative, yet again the context of the passage reveals Jesus is talking about a ‘future’ event.
So no, the present indicate does not always have a present tense continuous function, the context decides that.
Now in relation to Eph 2:1. What is important to know is that verse one does not have a subject or verb, only a present participle. As I stated earlier, the participle functions to show a contrast. It is not until verse 5 that we see Paul’s point, when he states that “But God…made us alive”. Therefore the subject and the verb of ‘umas’ (you) in verse 1 are not introduced until verse 4,5. Note also that verse 1-10 are two greek sentences 1-7, 8-10. Thus verse 1-7 fall into 2 parts, 1-3 and 4-7. The former is called an ‘anacoluthon’ and verse 4-7 give a contrast. Thus verse 1-3 highlight the sinful nature in the past, and verse 4-7 contrasts a new nature.
So thus the first main verb of the passage is in verse 5 “made you alive” is contrasted against the first person plural present participle in verse 1. Verse 2 says ‘in which you once walked” parallel to verse 10 which shows the new way to walk
The ‘kai’ (and) in verse one relates the passage back to chapter 1- a continual theme. Chapter 1 highlights God’s predetermined plan for his people to His glory and thus chapter 2 flows through with this thought.
Now Cheryl claimed that no such ‘additional grammar’ in Eph 2 shows that Paul means a past condition. However in verse 2 is a very clear grammatical feature- ‘tote’ (once). Paul is saying you were ‘once’ like this (dead in sin), “in which you once walked”-verse 2) but are now like this (alive in Christ). SO yes there is an explicit grammatical word talking about a past situation- “once” There are also numerous other grammatical features showing the contrast (besides the present participle). There is the contrast between following satan (verse 2) and Jesus. This is expoused by the ‘sun’ compounds and ‘en christo jesou’. Also in verse 4 we get the ‘But God’ (o de theos) and then the three aorist and perfect of the verb forms in 5,6 which all underline the break between a past and a present situation.
So although this may seem messy to many people with all the technical stuff let me conclude. First the perfect indicate verb can take either past, present or future meaning depending on context. Verse 1 is not even a present indicate but a present participle which by definition means a contrast is being made. Verse 2 has ‘tote’ which is an explicit example of a ‘past’ situation. The main verb is not until verse 5 when we are ‘made alive’, which means verse 1 is grammatically related to verse 5 (contrast of past/present, not present/present). Not only that, the overall context (including verse 11-22) explicitly show a past/present contrast.
Cheryl has not been faithful to how the greek grammar functions. She has only put forward one view of how the present indicative functions when there are many others. Not only that, but the present indicate is not there, but it is a present participle showing contrast. So not only am I confused at how a greek scholar ignores simple greek grammar, but her interpretation in my view is unbiblical and divorces the verse from it’s context. Cheryl you will have to do much better to convince me of your interpretation and please weigh all the evidence up.
Kristen,
“Arminians (in general) believe that when God “draws” someone, God enables that person to make a true choice. The sinner’s desire is bent towards sin; God provides just enough power to pull, but not to coerce, the sinner temporarily away from that bent. Suspended during the drawing process between the sinner’s desires and God’s, the sinner is in a state where he/she CAN choose.”
I am glad you brought these points up, since it is true depending on which ‘Armininan’ you talk to. An open theist (who label themselves Arminian) would reject what you have said- if God ‘pulls’ then it is not a free choice at all. A free choice has to be free from external forces does it not? This is why the ‘classical arminian’ position is so contradictory. They want to hold onto God working, but equally hold onto autonomous free will. Many recognise the problem here and have such turned to either Calvinism or open theism. Do we have free-will in heaven?
Second point, where does the Bible declare any of what you have said. ‘Draw’ in biblical greek means to drag, or pull in. It is most definitely a ‘coercise’ type greek word, not a passive one. What about all the people who haven’t had the choice to hear the gospel? Does God still draw them in the sense you mean? Show me from scripture what you have stated!
“Once the choice is made for God, the person’s nature is changed by regeneration of the Holy Spirit. But STILL there is no coercion– God’s power sets us free; it does not enslave us to doing God’s desire. Otherwise how could the regenerate person still be tempted?”
You missed the point of reformed theology. Reformed theology is dealing with salvation. How is a dead person able to choose the right thing? They simple cannot because they are dead. A calvinist does not say therefore that God wipes out our sinful desires post conversion. Paul outlines in Romans 7 the struggle we all face with our sin natures until the final eschaton. The issue is at salvation- before God gives us a new heart and the Spirit of God. Are people before that time able to respond to God? It’s obvious you believe in some sort of prevenient grace- maybe you can expand on it? Where is it in the Bible? When does it happen? These are vital question that an Arminian needs to answer from the Scriptures
“We were enslaved to sin without hope; but God’s work in our lives frees our will.”
Amen! Couldn’t agree more, we were without hope. So maybe you can show me from the Bible what you believe God’s work is? How far does it extend? Who does it extend to? Answers from the Bible please!
“We can still have confidence that He who began the good work will complete it, but God has made us sons, not slaves.”
Now what do you mean by God completing His good work? If it’s solely up to us, and God is not ‘coercing’ how can we be confident of anything except our own ‘choices’. Now does Romans 8:5-11 say that we are ‘controlled’ by the Spirit? Paul makes a clear contrast. We are either controlled by sin or we are controlled by the Spirit? God is not passive in our lives. He works out his plan and achieves what he has purposed. He works in us and through us.
Also about the ‘slaves’ stuff. Have a look at Rom 6:15ff. We are both sons of God and slaves of God. Again Paul draws a contrast- either we are slaves to sin or slaves to righteousness. Verse 16 says “don’t you know that when you offer yourselves to someone to obey him as slaves, you are slaves to the one whom you obey”. So I would disagree with you at this point. If we are true Christians and want to obey God, we are slaves to God. Verse 18 “you have set free from sin and have become slaves to righteousness”. Verse 22 “But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves to God…”
I do appreciate my brothers and sisters who hold onto evangelical arminianism. I just want them to show me from the sciptures what they believe. Where is prevenient grace? Where is predestination determined on foreknowledge of faith? Where is autonomous free-will free from external coercion? Let me finish with a few quotes from an Arminian.
“Absolutely crucial to all forms of free-will theism is the belief that persons only exercise free choice or liberty of decision and action when they could do otherwise than they do” Roger Olsen ‘Perspectives on the Doctrine of God’
So here Olsen outline an Arminian free-will. The person must be able to choose other than they do. So in essence, a person has to have the ability to choose God or reject God. But what Olsen fails to realise is that choices are governed by our desires.
“A person who cannot do X instead of Y cannot be exercising free will when doing Y even if he or she wants to do Y”
well there goes Pauls point in Romans 6 that we are slaves to sin. Unless of course God grants prevenient grace. But like always, Olsen doesn’t defend that point. Then he has the stupidity to say this…
“Christian free-will theists affirm that creaturely free-will is limited by many factors; God, sin, the environment and others.”
How’s that for a contradiction! We are only free if we can legitimately choose X and Y, yet we are limited by all these factors. So therefore we are not free at all. What if one of those limits (let’s say sin) effects our ability to choose X or Y. This is the precise inconsistency I am talking about. Olsen has essentially defended the view he has opposed, namely Augustinianism. He realises that our free-will is limited and restricted by factors. Thus why I reject such silly claims. They are logically inconsistent but more importantly un-biblical.
Kay, I really appreciate that you asked this question of Mark and wish I could have claimed that I thought of it first! His answer should be very enlightening!
Mark, you wrote quoting me and then answered:
“So the $64,000 dollar question is why did God inspire Ephesians 2:1 in the present tense and not the imperfect tense which would show a past state? If we believe that the Bible is completely inspired including the grammar and the inspired words, this is a valid question…”
This is very misleading and wrong. Does the present tense in the greek have to always be a continuous state of being? Yes or No? Of course it does not!
The present tense is the natural tense to express continued state of being. While it can mean other things if there is specific grammar to determine this, the “natural” meaning is the default unless there are markers showing it falls outside the norm. For some reason you didn’t even try to address the question I asked. Here it is again: If God wanted to make sure that we knew that Ephesians 2:1 was a past event that was no longer a functioning part of our being, then clearly He could have easily used the imperfect tense which would have shown this. So why would He chose the present tense which is almost always either 1) action in process or 2) a state of being that is continuous? Can you try to answer that question? While there are exceptions to the present tense being either 1) or 2), they are exceptions not the general usage of the grammar that is called the present tense in Greek.
So it appears to me that you are saying that God inspired a piece of grammar that could be taken the exact opposite of what He intended if we take the grammar with its general usage in the Scriptures so that it should be instead considered to be a past action that is neither in process and is not a state of being that is continuous? It appears that you are not daring to say that the passage cannot be taken the way I take it because surely you know and whoever is helping you with this challenge knows that the grammar as it is written in this passage can validly be interpreted in the way that I have interpreted it. For I interpret it with the grammar as the default or “normal” usage of the present tense and without special pleading.
As a greek scholar I am surprised at your comments.
I find it quite interesting that you are now appealing to our personal “scholarship”. Why are you doing that? Are you trying to make yourself a real Greek scholar? I know you are not a scholar as you make way too many mistakes on the Greek to be considered a Greek scholar. I also have never claimed to be a Greek scholar. There are few who deserve to be considered on this level and all of the ones who are real Greek scholars have doctorate degrees in the languages. Do you have a doctorate degree?
One of the great apologists who was a very big influence on my life was the late Dr. Walter Martin. He had a doctorate degree and 7 years of Greek but he also said that he was not a Greek scholar since he considered that 7 years was not enough to be considered a Greek scholar. Now since you are claiming to be a scholar on the Greek, perhaps you can reveal to all of us your doctorate designation, how many years of Greek you have and where you completed your Greek studies that qualify you as a scholar in the Greek language?
More to come…
Mark, you said:
But from the context of Eph 2 it is clear that the present particple is not used as a continual state of being, but as an emphatic remark to show us (and you) how merciful God is in Christ, by making us alive, when we were hopelessly dead in sin.
That is not clear at all. The imperfect tense would have been clear. There is nothing in the text that says we are “hopelessly” dead in sin so that we cannot respond to God’s drawing until we are seated with Christ in the heavenly places. How is it that we are in the heavenly places without faith anyway? Here are the next verses:
Ephesians 2:5–6 (YLT)
5even being dead in the trespasses, did make us to live together with the Christ, (by grace ye are having been saved,) 6and did raise us up together, and did seat us together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,
It is far more understandable that as Christians we are dead to sin because of Christ’s work (He is the first one who died to sin) and as dead to sin we are alive together with Christ and we are seated in the heavenly places in Christ. It makes no sense at all that an unbeliever is raised with Christ when he doesn’t yet believe in Christ. How could the passage say that an unbeliever must be raised with Christ and be “in Christ” in order to believe?
Nowhere in the Scriptures is an unbeliever ever said to be “in Christ”, or that an unbeliever is raised with Christ and seated in Christ in heaven in order to be saved, yet you confidently state that this passage is about unbelievers becoming alive before they believe. This is an extremely confusing rendering that has no other witness in the Scriptures. How could I be so blind to just accept nonsense like this? It truly doesn’t make sense with test by the Scriptures.
So if you were serious about your claims to know the truth of the grammar you would not say the things that you have. You would realise that the present tense verbs can be used and mean different things to your proposal. Please be honest with your readers about that.
I have been completely honest about the normal usage of the word and it would not be a fair thing for you to challenge my sincerity. You also have agreed with me that there is a normal and clear way to present the “being” dead as a past tense using another piece of grammar, but the Scripture did not take this normal and natural route. Could it really be because God is emphasizing his mercy by making us alive with Christ in the heavens even when we were in the state of being dead in sin? How can that be? If it is God’s mercy that makes a person alive with Christ in the heavens before he believes, then why would faith be required for salvation? The person is already “in Christ” and “in the heavens” in a place of authority and as an heir “in Christ” so the only thing that we can get from this passage with your interpretation is that unbelievers are mercied “in Christ” in the heavens as heirs while they are still in their unbelief!! Thus unbelievers are joined together in the body of Christ (in Christ) without faith, without repentance and while dead in sin. Sorry, but I don’t find this an honest rendering of the gospel of God’s grace and the problems that this view brings to play are massive in my opinion. I just want to keep true to the text within its own context and within the full picture of the Bible. It is inconceivable that people dead in their sins are united with Christ as unbelievers and that this is necessary for them to believe. And it is inconceivable to me that my sincerity of faith is in question because that rendering does not appear faithful to the Scriptures. So why do Calvinists questions non-Calvinist’s sincerity? Were you one of the insincere ones before you bcame a Calvinist?
As I said, the normal usuage is a present state of being or an ongoing action and other usages have to have special grammar to make them something other than the norm.
More to come…
Mark you said:
You can give your interpretation of a passage and that is fine, but do not mishandle how the greek can actually function in a given context. To do so is not a good thing to do.
I have not mishandled it at all. You yourself admit that the passage could be taken as it is in the present. And when I was first studying this passage, I queried my friend who is a bonafide Greek scholar (he indeed has his doctorate degree) about the grammar on this passage. He also did not tell me that it is not possible for the passage to be taken as the present.
You ought to be faithful to the grammar and explore ALL the functions of it as determined by the context around it.
So let me ask you – were you faithful to the normal usage of the present tense and consider that this is what it could mean in the passage, or did you just accept what you were given by Calvinists? Can you truthfully say that you considered this option? Or do paint all those who want to be thorough and consider all the options to be biased?
After closing looking at the passage, I wonder, how would I consider myself faithful to take the grammar as completely different from Paul’s usage of the terms dead and alive that are together in Romans 6:11 where one is both “dead” and “alive” at the same time? And a consideration that Eph 2:1 would be untenable if at the very time one is “dead” in sin as an unbeliever one is placed “in Christ” in heaven without so much as any faith in Christ, but in heaven with Christ in order to believe! My brother in Christ, this kind of interpretation flies in the face of the rquirement to believe to be “in Christ” for salvation. Fro it is believing that makes one “in Christ” and unbelievers can have no part of Christ. Does not the Scriptures say that the unbelieving will have their part in the lake of fire? How then can the unbelieving be joined with Christ?
Revelation 21:8 (NASB)
8 “But for the cowardly and unbelieving and abominable and murderers and immoral persons and sorcerers and idolaters and all liars, their part will be in the lake that burns with fire and brimstone, which is the second death.”
More to come…
Mark, you said:
Such far, you are failing heavily to read the context and have approached both Eph 2:1, and Rom 6:11 with a preconcieved ideas about the grammar.
How is it that you now have the power to read my heart and my motives? You are really not that good at it. Maybe you should leave that with God.
I have come to the passage to understand the grammar and the inspired words in their direct context and the present tense is the only way that the passage can make sense in my mind because of the serious implications of having an unbeliever being in Christ. But when I see the same thought of being dead and being alive in Romans 6:11 and it is all about believers and all about what Christ has done for us (he was made dead to sin so that we can also be dead to sin and He was made alive so that we can be alive in Him), I cannot in all good conscience see Ephesians 2:1 as about unbelievers in union with Christ and if you can, then perhaps your Calvinism is more important to you than the problems making unbelievers “in Christ” presents in the text.
So no, you have not dismantled or disproven this ‘calvinist proof text’, quite the contrary actually.
This is exactly what I used to hear from many Jehovah’s Witnesses whom I challenged about the Watchtower’s doctrine compared to Scripture. They told me that my interpretation of the text that made Jesus the Lord God Almighty, didn’t affect them at all and made them even stronger as believers in their organization. It is as if they are holding to a love of their life that will totally disregard a true challenge for fear that their precious faith in the Watchtower would be hurt. I seriously went through their doctrines to try to understand them too. If there had been any truth there I would not have been afraid to become a Jehovah’s Witness. I was not biased, I just didn’t find truth in the JW’s.
And in testing the Calvinistic system, some of it sounds good at the outset but when you look carefully at the texts there is a real problem that appears unsolvable and contadictory.
For example when the Bible says that Jesus died for “the many” I am supposed to have faith in Calvinism that teaches that “the many” means actually “the few”. How could I in all good conscience believe that line when the lexicons list “many” as an antonym to “few” and as a synonym for “the whole”?
When we look at Romans 5:15 the grace of God and “the gift” given by the grace of Jesus is for “the many” and in context the gift is salvation.
Romans 5:15 (NASB)
15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many.
The BDAG shows what “many” means and also what is the opposite of “many”:
polys (many)
many, large, great, extensive, plentifulnot many=(only) a few
Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed.) (847-850).
So if many is not a few and is in fact opposite to the few, why should we believe that when the Bible says Jesus died for many that He actually didn’t die for many but only for a few? You have not yet answered this yet. Do you have an answer?
You have shown your own bias and neglected how the actual grammar can and has functioned in this passage.
Actually I don’t have a bias like yours that would force me to see “few” out of “many”. I just take the common grammar and see if it fits in the passage and when it does fit and doesn’t contradict other clear passages, I feel confident that God has been clear. But when I see your interpretation that has to take the uncommon grammar usage that contradicts other clear passages and within the passage itself by making unbelievers as being “in Christ”, I don’t see the sense of accepting that as probable truth.
Since you have called me biased when I know my own heart and that isn’t true, perhaps you can show all of us how unbiased you are by explaining how you get “the few” out of “the many” since only few there are that find life but Jesus died for “the many”? The Analytical lexicon says this of “many”:
(c) of quantity; with a singular noun much, large, great (MT 14.14), opposite (of) (little); of things that occur in a mass or in large quantities: much (fruit) (JN 12.24), long (speech)… with an inclusive (Semitic) sense elsewhere; all (present), the whole community, the whole (crowd) (HE 12.15); (c) … in reference to the saving work of Jesus in MK 10.45; 14.24; RO 5.16; and HE 9.28, the Semitic inclusive sense is to be understood, i.e. Jesus died for all (cf. JN 6.51; 1T 2.6; HE 2.9);
Friberg, T., Friberg, B., & Miller, N. F. (2000). Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker’s Greek New Testament library (321).
More to come…
Mark you said:
I agree with you that people cannot come to God because they do not love Him. But I guess the difference is because I believe that unregenerate people are unable (Rom 8:6-7 makes that clear).
It is clear that some people who had not yet come to Christ loved God. No all who are unregenerate are haters of God. But we can look at this passage when we get to Romans.
However yo have still failed to show where the Bible teaches prevenient grace to therefore show people are able to do things which you believe are required.
The term prevenient grace is not in the Scriptures, but it is clear that people who love God and do what is right are not able to do these things without God’s help. Call God’s enabling whatever you want, but if the Bible says that some feared God long before they came to faith in Christ, then cannot we both agree that it isn’t a case of only human ability but God’s enabling this kind of obedience? Well unless you believe that we are all able to do what is right without God’s help but that doesn’t seem to be your position.
I disagree however with all the conditions you are adding onto salvation. Initally you just said faith but now you have extended that several fold all BEFORE one is even saved.
I didn’t give conditions for salvation, but conditions that God gives for the Father giving people to Jesus. If there are no conditions of obedience to the Word of the Father before one is given to the Son, then all you will have to do to disprove this is to show one person who is given to Christ who is a God-hater. I would sure be interested in seeing such an example.
For example here are your own words of conditions one must meet before being allowed to come to God- “practise the truth”, “have God’s word abide in them”, “have the love of God”, “seek God’s glory”, “refuse to believe”.
Huh? Refuse to believe? And again you apparently have a bit of a problem in understanding the difference between those who can hear and believe the message even though they had been unfaithful and practicers of evil and those who are “given” to Jesus.
So whats that…5 extra conditions one must meet before they are allowed to be saved. Please explain how you do not teach a works based gospel?
So show me where I said there are conditions that one must meet before they are allowed to be saved? Did I not clearly say that these were conditions for one being “given” to Jesus thus showing that these ones actually “belonged” to the Father so that they could be given to Jesus from those whom He owned?
Are you really trying to understand me or am I the one at fault for saying it the wrong way? If it is me, then please provide a quote instead of just summing up your view of what I said because you are not terribly good at summarizing my position. Maybe you will get better in the future 🙂
To be continued…
Mark,
For John 6:35-44, the view I hold regards who the “all that” refers to. Many calvinists identify the “all that” in verses 37 and 39 as “those whom, in his great love, he elected long ago to save.” It appears to me such an understanding cannot be justified when we compare the “all that” found in verse 39 with verse 40. Notice the parallel lines in the ABCCBA structure of verses 39-40
A raise them up at the last day
B that I shall lose none of all that he has given me
C this is the will of him who sent me
C’ For this is the will of my Father
B’ that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life
A’ raise him up at the last day
Note the connective word ‘de’ in verse 40. There is a logical connection between the last sentence and the following. This connection was self-evident in the ABCCBA structure of these verses. The “all that” in verse 39 whom the Father “has given” to Jesus is none other than “everyone who looks to the Son and believes in Him,” in verse 40. Both verses affirm that all believers will be raised up on the last day.
Quoting well known Calvinist F. F. Bruce: “In verse 39 ‘all’ is neuter singular (pan) as in verse 37a, and when Jesus says that he will ‘raise it (auto) up on the last day’ he speaks of the *sum-total* of his people. In verse 40 ‘every one’ is masculine singular (pas), and when Jesus says that he will ‘raise him (auton) up at the last day’ he speaks of each individual believer as in verse 37b.”
“The “all that” in verse 39 is identical to that in verse 37. In the first part of verse 37 the pronoun ‘all’ is neuter singular (Gk. pan), denoting the sum-total of believers. In the second part (‘the one who comes’) *each individual* member of that sum-total is in view. This oscillation between the (believing) community as a whole and its individual members reappears in verses 39 and 40.”
The “some” to be given to the Son are “the sum-total of believers” or “the whole mass of believers,” or better yet “all believers regarded as one complete whole” (Vincent, Word Studies, 2:150). Individual persons are not selected and then given to Jesus in order to *become* believers, as Calvinist’s assert, people are given to Jesus because they are *already believers*.
It is significant that the Greek word for “come”in verses 35, 37b, 44, and 45 is different from that of “will come”in 37a. “Will come” (heko) emphasizes the idea of reaching or arriving, whereas the one who comes (erchomai) to Jesus emphasizes the process of coming. In verses 35 and 37b, “comes” is a present participle that refers to ongoing action and is literally translated “coming.” It is synonymous with “believing” in this context. It is also significant that “believe” is used as a present participle in verses 35, 40, 47. Also, “believe” is used as a present participle in verses 35, 40, 47. Individual believers who keep on coming to Jesus in faith are promised that they will never be spiritually hungry (v 35a), nor will they be driven away or “cast out” from Jesus.
It appears that in verse 37a, Jesus does not specifically have the individual believer in mind, but all believers seen as a *collective whole*. It is they who will come to Jesus. The Greek word for will come (heko) is not a present participle but a future indicative. How is it that all believers, regarded as a complete whole, will come to Jesus or reach Him in the future? The answer is provided just two verses later by the other “all that” verse 39: “And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of all that he has given me, but raise them up at the last day.”
According to verse 39, all believers as a group, regarded as a complete whole, given to Jesus will be raised up on the last day. In verse 37a, all believers, regarded as a complete whole, that the Father gives to Jesus will come to Jesus. Each time the verb “raise up” (anistemi) is used in John (6:39, 40, 44, 54) it is in the future indicative like “will come” (heko). It seems resonable to conclude, from the immediate context, from the corresponding phrase “all that,” from the change in the Greek word and its tense, that “will come” to Christ in verse 37a is parallel in meaning with the phrase “raise up on the last day.” Certainly, “all” believers will come to Jesus in the resurrection.
Mark you quoted me and then said:
“We can pray that a person will be brought to the place of repentance, but repentance is something that the person themselves must do. And if the person rejects God Himself, he may not be granted repentance just like Esau.”
First, I would like you to be consistent In your claim of seeking the truth of the ispired grammar and actually deal with 2 Tim 2:25. If God has granted everyone the ability to repent (as you believe) why does Paul tell Timothy to ask God to grant it to certain people.
Mark, why don’t you read the quote you just made from me again> I appears that you have not really read the quote carefully. Did I or did I not say that Esau was not granted repentance? If I said that some may not be granted repentance like Esau, then how can you say that I believe that God grants everyone the ability to repent? Does this mean that you didn’t actually read what I wrote or are you purposely trying to misrepresent me? I have no ability to judge your motives so I will let you tell us all why you quoted me and then misrepresented me?
Next are you asking me to be consistent in saying that God grants all to come to repentance when this is not what I believe? We simply cannot take advantage of God’s grace. The Bible says that “now” is the day of salvation and those who disregard God’s good gift and think that they have the ability to come whenever they want even after rejecting God over and over again – they are not guaranteed an ability to come to repentance. They may have received God’s grace in the beginning, but they will not end up with grace and God granting them “repentance” if they continue to harden their hearts.
Isn’t Timothy praying for something that God has already done?
No. Some have walked away from the light that God gives everyone and the darkness that they walk in now cannot allow their eyes to be opened without the grace of God. And God has chosen the time when they will no longer have repentance. I saw this time and time again working with Jehovah’s Witnesses and with witnessing to them. I saw some given more than enough to bring them to repentance and they even shook with fear at what they were being shown, but they turned away from the light that God gave them and even though they were once granted repentance, they refused God’s light.
Also note the inspired grammar that siads God “grants them repentance” not “the ability to repent”. Repentance itself is something God grants- it is a gift.
This is what the Scripture says:
2 Timothy 2:25 (NASB)
25 with gentleness correcting those who are in opposition, if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth,
If this was just a “gift” from God then there would be no need to correct these ones. But the fact that the granting of repentance is after the gentleness and correction shows that the “granting of repentance” is an opening of one’s eyes to understand the lie so that one can repent. Once one repents of the lie, one can be lead into the knowledge of the truth.
Again I saw this in my work with JW’s. Often it is easier and the best to correct the lie first before the person can accept the truth. Is this just a “gift” dropped into the person that causes repentance? That isn’t the intent of the passage. It is God’s work through correction that wil open one’s eyes to the lie. That “opening of the eyes” that is a gift from God to the person who is believing in a lie, allowing their minds to see how they have been deceived. But just because a godly Christian brought gentle correction to them and they repented of the lie that they had been entangled in, doesn’t mean that God is not involved and the person could have their eyes opened without God’s work. Not at all. When God opens one’s mind to the truth about “the lie” it is a gift and it is how God “grants” repentance, for no one entangled in the lie can repent without his eyes opened to the lie. Does this make sense?
Second your own argument about Esau falls apart since the text you sight saids that Esau “sought for repentance with tears”. Why wasn’t he forgiven then? He sought repentance with tears! Clearly though it was not ‘granted’ by God to him.
Yes clearly repentance was not granted to him. Why? Because his eyes had already been opened to the importance of his birthright, but the Bible tells us that Esau despised it.
Genesis 25:32–34 (NASB)
32 Esau said, “Behold, I am about to die; so of what use then is the birthright to me?”
33 And Jacob said, “First swear to me”; so he swore to him, and sold his birthright to Jacob.
34 Then Jacob gave Esau bread and lentil stew; and he ate and drank, and rose and went on his way. Thus Esau despised his birthright.
To despise means to have contempt for something. If Esau deliberately despised his birthright only to think that he could turn around later and ask think that it was no problem to get it back, did God have the right to refuse to grant Esau repentance? I believe that God had the complete right to withhold from Esau the allowing of his repentance. But not granting repentance to one who was deliberate in his distain for his birthright does not mean that God refuses to grant repentance to others for no reason at all? Or do you see God this way, one who arbitrarily withholds his blessing? Is this what you love about Calvinism? Are you greatly loving and enjoying the idea that God chose you without the condition of faith and rejected so many others without any condition of their sins?
Mark, you said:
Thanks for the replies. I want comment extensively until you finish dealing with the exegetical issues i have raised in Eph 2.
Well thanks a bunch. That should help me to catch up before I get the next barrage. I wanted to get through all of the posts as soon and if I get too many back right away, I won’t get finished but get distracted again, so I thank you for being kind to my mind 😉
Also, alot of your comments about what i believe confused me. Can you state what it is you think i am saying about Eph 2.
Sure.
In Ephesians 2:1 I understand that you believe that before we are believers we were completely dead in our trespasses and sins so that we cannot respond to God or do anything spiritually good including loving God, fearing God or believing God.
In verse 2 I understand that you believe that the sins that we were dead in were ones that were from satan the god of this world and it is that spirit that works within the reprobate called sons of disobedience.
In verse 3 I understand that you believe that the elect were among the reprobate living only by our own lusts and doing only what we wanted to do (which is only bad choices following our sinful nature). In this state you believe that the elect that had been picked unconditionally by God from eternity past were by nature the same as the children of the devil. You believe that we were all subject to God’s wrath.
In verse 4 I understand that you believe that God alone decides the time when He will show us His mercy and it is because He loved us from eternity past and picked us to be the elect.
In verse 5 I understand that you believe that while we were helpless in our sins and unable to do any spiritual good and unable to respond to God or fear Him, God brought us to life by unconditionally making us born again which brings us to life spiritually so that we can hear the gospel and believe and experience salvation.
In verse 6 I understand that you believe that God raised us up with Christ and “in Christ” seated us in heaven as part of the body of Christ and all this is a gift of God without any faith of our own but only through the gift of God that assures that that we will believe and continue to believe.
In verse 7 I understand that you believe that in the future ages that God will show the elect as the ones who were unconditionally picked by Him and this unconditional election will bring God great honor and show His sovereignty.
In verse 8 I understand that you believe that we are saved by God’s sovereign grace without our participation of responding to God with our own faith but rather that the grace and God’s faith given as a gift and salvation are all called a gift of God.
In verse 9 I understand that you believe that salvation is not by man’s faith or man’s works by chosing to respond to God but is solely caused by God through God’s choice and this is so that God’s Sovereignty will be praised and no man will get any glory that belongs only to God.
So do I understand you properly or have I misrepresented you in any way?
Finally about the issue of ‘conditions’ that i raised in relation to John 6. You said very clearly that people had to be like A or do A before the Father ‘gives’ them to Jesus. Now you agreed that the passage is saying that all the Father gives ‘come’ to Jesus- that is they believe. So ‘giving’ comes before believing according to the verse. So if you say there are conditions for giving, it inevitably means condiitons have to be met before believing (since giving comes before believing).
What you are missing is that I said that these conditions are met for all who are given to the Son but the ones who are given to Christ are not the only ones who can be saved. But the ones who belong to the Father and are given to the Son have received God’s promise that they will participate in the covenant without fail. They have listened and learned from the Father and they will listen and learn and respond in faith to the Son.
So while you see from chapter 6 that only the ones given by the Father to the Son will receive salvation, the Scripture doesn’t say that. The passage is specifically only talking about one group of people who already belong to the Father.
So you need to reconcile for me how that is not works based, because these conditions are not just faith. They are conditions that need to be met before ‘giving’, thus before faith and before coming/believing.
The Bible makes it clear that there are means of grace. Praying is a means of grace where we can communicate with God and have our heart changed, but prayer as a means of grace is not a work. Every promise of God is a means of grace.
Matthew 7:7–8 (NASB)
7 “Ask, and it will be given to you; seek, and you will find; knock, and it will be opened to you.
8 “For everyone who asks receives, and he who seeks finds, and to him who knocks it will be opened.
Jesus said to ask, seek and knock therefore asking, seeking and knocking are not works if they are combined with faith.
James 1:6–8 (NASB)
6 But he must ask in faith without any doubting, for the one who doubts is like the surf of the sea, driven and tossed by the wind.
7 For that man ought not to expect that he will receive anything from the Lord,
8 being a double-minded man, unstable in all his ways.
In fact anything that God commands if we obey Him in faith, it is not a work. Thus fearing God is not a work. In the Scriptures “works” are in opposition to faith and these kinds of works are called “dead works”.
Hebrews 6:1 (NASB)
1 Therefore leaving the elementary teaching about the Christ, let us press on to maturity, not laying again a foundation of repentance from dead works and of faith toward God,
So when Abraham believed God and obeyed Him in going to the country that God called Him to, this was not a dead work but an act of faith. Believing God, fearing Him, praying to Him – all of these things are not dead works, but acts of faith. God cannot command us to fear Him and then condemn us when we fear Him calling it a “dead work”.
Thanks
You are welcome!
Mark you said:
Regarding your claim that the Cannaanites of the conquest were given a chance to repent. I noticed you quoted Jeremiah. Now Jeremiah was a exilic prophet, who lived, what, some 500-600 years after the conquest of the land. So no, the Jeremiah text does not deal with my question at all.
The timing doesn’t matter at all because God gave the Word and He does not change. Let’s read it again:
Jeremiah 18:7–8 (NASB)
7 “At one moment I might speak concerning a nation or concerning a kingdom to uproot, to pull down, or to destroy it;
8 if that nation against which I have spoken turns from its evil, I will relent concerning the calamity I planned to bring on it.
God’s shows that His purpose in coming against a sinful nation to destroy is to have repentance first rather than destruction. Since God says this about a nation that He sets His mind to destroy, and since God does not change, we can know that God has the same plan for any nation to repent before He destroys them. Just because He knows that most will not repent, doesn’t mean that His purpose changes. Now if you think that God changes from one ungodly nation to another and changes His timeless prophecy about the importance of repentance that moves the hand of God, then you will need to show that God
Also with Jonah, the time frame was way off the conquest.
The book of Jonah is undated, but many scholars believe that it is one of the oldest books in the Bible. In this book Jonah shows that the God who does not change is merciful and will respond to a nation who repents.
God also shows that He is merciful by not destroying the Amorites (part of Canaan) until their sin had reached a level where destruction was imminent.
Genesis 15:16 (NASB)
16 “Then in the fourth generation they will return here, for the iniquity of the Amorite is not yet complete.”
So we see God’s mercy even for a time by not destroying the Canaanites and we can be certain because of knowledge of God’s character of longsuffering and mercy that He gave them enough evidence regarding who He is at least through nature in order for them to seek Him.
Romans 1:19–20 (NASB)
19 because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them.
20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
God has done this for all.
I agree though with the aliens becoming part of the convenant people. However a covenant people were a chosen people, a loved people. Other nations were not a covenant people.
The passage I quoted is not about other nations but the people from these nations. They were given full covenant status in Israel and so they did become covenant people of all who came. Is the issue about individuals or not? You may need to decide now before we gt to Romans 9.
Now the atonement is clear in my view. Either it atoned and achieved a purpose or it didn’t. An Arminian position saids it didn’t achieve forgiveness, just that it made it possible, if people would just reach out and grab it.
I don’t know Arminians who would argue that the atonement did not achieve forgiveness. Either Jesus paid for the sins on the cross or He didn’t. If He didn’t then no forgiveness is “possible” so it should be obvious that the payment was completed on the cross.
So the question I have is this – were you a person who did not understand the atonement and only thought that forgiveness was possible? Is that why you became a Calvinist?
An Arminian atonement has the Trinity working against each other.
Oh really? Is that what you believed as an Arminian?
Jesus dies for all men, yet the Spirit does not work in all men to achieve atonement for all.
Your lack of understanding of the non-Calvinist position is amazingly lacking. You actually come across as one who was saved as a Calvinist and who has never experienced another position. Although I would like you to let me finish answering your comments before you bombard me again, I would really like you to answer Kay’s questions about your experience with Arminianism before you became a Calvinist like who you studied and read on this subject while you were still an Arminian? What books, authors did you read? Her questions are really important to me, so I would ask that you do respond even before I finish answering your questions.
So Jesus achieves for all, but the Spirit achieves for a few. See the problem.
Yes, I see your problem. You seem to have almost no understanding of the opposing position. I don’t think that is helpful for your position.
Jesus does one thing, the Spirit does another. But anyway, I’m getting ahead of my self and will wait till you give your definition of how the atonement functions.
This makes me really understand why it is so easy for some to become Calvinists. They had a lack of understanding. Or is is possible that they originally understood but the Calvinist mindset confused them and made them mixed up? I don’t know, but I wish I understood because it is really puzzling.
I don’t have much time left tonight. I will try to finish tomorrow. Just don’t give me more to answer for a bit so I can finish.
Thanks and talk to you later, amigo.
Kay and Cheryl,
I was never a hard core apologetic Armininan. I believed what i heard in churches, namely, that predestination is based on foreknowledge of our faith. I never had an issue with this, because this is all i knew. The people i knew, the people i respected held to this sort of theology. My Father-in-law would hold to a strong classical Arminian position.
The crux came, when i was asked to preach at our church becasue our Pastor was away. We were at the time going through a ‘doctrine’ series, so i thought it wise (although i was probably foolish) to go through Romans 9 and look at predestination. This is when it hit me. As i studied Romans 9-11, in the context of Romans as a whole, and as i looked at various commentaries, both reformed and arminian, my whole theology fell to pieces.
Looking at the text exegetically in it’s context i could no longer hold onto what i thought predestination was. As such i began researching reformed theology and thus my whole doctrinal position shifted. Many in my church were disgusted at what i had said. But it was always good in stimulating discussion and being humble and loving to those you disagree with.
Once i began looking into the two different theologies i began to realise that much of the arminian position is based on ‘reason’ and not scripture. Things like preceeding grace are assumed but not declared in the Bible. Like wise divine foreknowledge of faith is assumed but not declared. The inconsistencies began to flow in what i thought i believed and so i decided from that point to stick to what the Bible saids, no matter what!
Hope this helps.
I was not converted a ‘calvinist’ in terms of theology. But as i refelct even on my own conversion i can see the truth in reformed theology. I had no interest in the things of God. I did not fear him, i did not glorify him. But at that one moment when i heard the gospel a light bulb switched on. I wasn’t serching or seeking for God. I know however, that when Jesus calls his sheep they listen to his voice. I experienced that first hand. I indeed was dead and blind, BUT GOD made me alive in Christ Jesus
Mark,
Now we see why you write things like:
“They want to hold onto God working, but equally hold onto autonomous free will.”
and then Cheryl has to explain with:
“The classical Arminian position does not hold to a completely “autonomous” free will since their view is that without God’s power enabling, no one could have a free will at all.”
and you said this:
“Now the atonement is clear in my view. Either it atoned and achieved a purpose or it didn’t.An Arminian position saids it didn’t achieve forgiveness, just that it made it possible, if people would just reach out and grab it.”
…to which I must say, this is not the Arminian position either.
Even before God created the universe He foreknew those who would trust in Christ’s blood and so be saved. But even if no one ever put trust in Christ, His sacrifice would still serve as the atonement provided. If all rejected that blood it would be tragic but God’s love nor His grace would have failed as a result.
Because a man rejects God’s atonement that does not make it void in any way. Does it? To say that it would is *man centered*, especially for those who hold to Calvinism and claim to disdain “man centered” theology. It would make the significance of God’s sacrifice dependent on man’s reception. But God’s justice would be vindicated even if every person rejected the provision of Christ’s shed blood. Right?
You object that Christ would shed His blood for those He foreknew would reject that provision. The first problem with this suggestion is it presumes to know what God would and would not do. This is again a surprising objection coming from someone who holds to God’s sovereignty to do just as He pleases (and of course Arminians believe God has the freedom to do as He pleases as well). But if God has indeed revealed that He provides atonement for those He foreknows will reject that provision, Arminians could just use the favorite Calvinist response to such objections, “Who are you O’ man to talk back to God?”
We can see from Scripture that God makes provisions even for those He knows will ultimately reject those provisions. This truth can be seen in the parable of the banquet described by Jesus in Matt. 22:1-14 and Luke 14:16-24.
In both of these accounts, it is obvious that the feast was prepared for those who would refuse the invitation (specifically the Jews). The invitation went out to them and the invitation was genuine. (God does not lie) They refused the invitation and angered the host. Now if the feast was not intended or prepared for these Jews, then why was the host angry with them when they would not come? According to the Calvinist objection, he never intended for them to come and made no provision for them, so there would be no cause for anger.
Now, look at Matt. 22:4. After the initial invitation was refused, the king sent his servants a second time saying,
“Tell those who have been invited that I have prepared my dinner: My oxen and fattened cattle have been butchered, and everything is ready. Come to the wedding banquet.”
Those invited refuse again and mistreated the servants. He then says,
“The wedding banquet is ready; those I invited did not deserve to come.”
Notice the reason why the guests were refused was not because the dinner was not provided for them, but *because they refused the invitation*, and by refusing proved unworthy to attend.
If the banquet had not been provided for them, then the king has no reason to be angry with them for not attending. According to Calvinism, the king never intended for them to attend – so, that would mean he lied when he told the guests that the dinner had been prepared for them. The issue, then, is not foreknowledge, but the genuineness of the offer and the integrity of God making the offer.
The idea that the response was the result of being already ‘elect’ needs to be read into the text and directly conflicts with the fact that the feast was prepared for all those to whom the invitation went out – even those who rejected that invitation.
As Cheryl has pointed out several times, Arminians do not need to redefine the term ‘many’ to mean ‘few’ as Calvinists do.
Mark, you said:
I have agreed with you that the present indicate can have a linear function. However as I have stated, that is not always the case. The context, adverbs etc determine it’s function and thus is translation and interpretation. But you seem to wish to dismiss this clear fact of greek grammar. Let me show your readers just a few example to prove that the present indicate verb can be used to have a past or future meaning.
Mat 3:1 In those days John the Baptist came preaching…
‘Came’ here is the present indicate, yet the context reveals this is a past action.
I am very happy that you agree with me that the present tense can have a linear function, but you are making another grammar error when you are talking about the present indicative verb because Eph 2:1 is not present indicative. In fact instances of the periphrastic present indicative are few and are logged under the general present which is also where the historical present is found.
I will copy the screen print from the Lexham Syntactic Greek New Testament Expansions and Annotations. Everyone can see that the Greek term for “to be” or “being” in Ephesians 2:1 is a present, active, participle accusative verb. It isn’t indicative. Also the kind of participle used in Ephesians 2:1 is a circumstantial participle. It expresses the conditions or circumstances under which the action occurs in the clause. The occuring action for the circumstantial participle is present.
Mark you said:
Mat 13:44 “Again the kingdom of heaven is like treasure hidden in a field, which a man found and hid; and for joy over it he goes and sells all that he has and buys that field.”
‘buys’ here is the present indicate as are ‘goes, sells and has’. The action however has occurred in the past: the man took the money, paid and the deed was done.
The use of the present in this effect relates the hearer and reader into almost a present position, yet the context shows a past action.
The action cannot be past action because it isn’t true, but a parable or “story”. This is a story telling “time” that is called the historical present. A real story can be told with the historical present, but it would then be a narrative but told as if the events were actually happening at the moment.
Historical Present—“The historical or historic present is the name given to the use of the present tense in a narrative when the verb would be expected to have been in the past tense … [It] usually occurs prior to the event or group of events that are of particular significance” The Lexham Discourse Greek New Testament: Glossary.
These are termed “historical presents,” and such occurrences dramatize the event described as if the reader were there watching the event occur. Some English translations render such historical presents in the English past tense, while others permit the tense to remain in the present.
Pierce, L. Tense Voice Mood.
Surely you aren’t claiming that Ephesians 2:1 is a historical narrative story? And once again the example you gave is the present indicative (which Eph 2:1 is not) and the example is a story-telling feature that is outside of doctrinal facts.
I came across this issue many years ago when I was dealing with the Jehovah’s Witnesses and I had presented them with Jesus’ statement saying “I AM” (present tense). They said that it was not present tense but was meant to be taken as a historical present. Although John 8:58 is a present indicative (unlike the grammar of Eph 2:1), John 8:58 cannot be taken as a historical present because it is doctrinal truth and not a story telling narrative. It was meant to show Jesus as His very being is one of timeless “present” state of being and because the Jews understood Jesus in what He was saying about Himself, they picked up stones to kill him.
Sorry, Mark, but once again your attempt to claim the present indicative is the same as the present grammar of Ephesians 2:1, you are wrong again.
To be continued shortly…
Mark, you said:
Also the present takes a future meaning in some contexts.
John 14:3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am.”
‘will come’ is a present indicative, yet again the context of the passage reveals Jesus is talking about a ‘future’ event.
So no, the present indicate does not always have a present tense continuous function, the context decides that.
Once again your example is a present indicative which is not the same as Eph. 2:1. Also in John 14:3 the present tense would fit well with Jesus’ second coming in His glorified body since as God He is the I AM (continuous present tense).
Now in relation to Eph 2:1. What is important to know is that verse one does not have a subject or verb, only a present participle. As I stated earlier, the participle functions to show a contrast. It is not until verse 5 that we see Paul’s point, when he states that “But God…made us alive”. Therefore the subject and the verb of ‘umas’ (you) in verse 1 are not introduced until verse 4,5.
You are right in that the first direct verb is not until verse 5 however the term “kai” does not need to show a contrast and it is incorrect to say that the participle functions to show a contrast. That is not true. It is just as much an option that “kai” shows a close connection rather than a contrast.
The initial (kai) of both verses creates a problem. In v. 1 it might suggest a close connection with what precedes, ‘you also being dead as Christ was dead’,
A critical and exegetical commentary on Ephesians (199).
What is more probable? A contrast or a connection? Remember that chapter divisions are not in the original so with the connecting word “kai” at the beginning of chapter 2, we need to see what it is connected to which leads us back to chapter 1:
Ephesians 1:19–23 (NASB)
19 and what is the surpassing greatness of His power toward us who believe. These are in accordance with the working of the strength of His might
20 <>which He brought about in Christ, when He raised Him from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly places,
21 far above all rule and authority and power and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this age but also in the one to come.
22 And He put all things in subjection under His feet, and gave Him as head over all things to the church,
23 which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all.
In the preceeding chapter Paul is talking about God’s great power toward us who believe. This power is the working of God’s strength and power which was shown when He raised Christ from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavens. Everthing is put in subjection under His feet and because we are His body, everything is put under subjection of our feet because we too sit with Christ in the heavens. Is the power of sin put in subjection under our feet too?
Ephesias 2:1 seems to show that quite clearly to me.
Ephesians 2:1–6 (YLT)
1 Also you—being dead in the trespasses and the sins, 2in which once ye did walk according to the age of this world, according to the ruler of the authority of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience, 3among whom also we all did walk once in the desires of our flesh, doing the wishes of the flesh and of the thoughts, and were by nature children of wrath—as also the others.
4 And God, being rich in kindness, because of His great love with which He loved us, 5even being dead in the trespasses, did make us to live together with the Christ, (by grace ye are having been saved,) 6and did raise us up together, and did seat us together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,
Because of the power of God that is shown in Christ through His resurrection, we are “in Christ” and dead to the sins that we formerly walked in. God has shown us His great mercy by giving us the resurrection power of Christ in order to be dead to the sins that once had power over us. And in the same power that made us dead to these old sins, we are also at the same time made fully alive with Christ because we are seated with Him in the heavenly places with all things under our feet. All things under our feet must include the sins that we used to control us.
To be continued…
Mark,
Is there any passage that shows that an unregenerate person cannot hear God at all? Acts 10:1-4 shows Cornelius as one who was not yet a believer in Jesus, called “devout”, one who “feared” God and spoke to God “continually” in prayer. He was not deaf and blind spiritually when the angel of God showed up and called to him. And what the angel told him, he was spiritually aware of and he obeyed.
Acts 10:1–4 (NASB)
Cornelius’s Vision
1 Now there was a man at Caesarea named Cornelius, a centurion of what was called the Italian cohort,
2 a devout man and one who feared God with all his household, and gave many alms to the Jewish people and prayed to God continually.
3 About the ninth hour of the day he clearly saw in a vision an angel of God who had just come in and said to him, “Cornelius!”
4 And fixing his gaze on him and being much alarmed, he said, “What is it, Lord?” And he said to him, “Your prayers and alms have ascended as a memorial before God.
Notice that the call came to Cornelius not to Peter. Peter did not send for Cornelius to come to him nor did Peter send himself to Cornelius’ house.
Acts 10:5–8 (NASB)
5 “Now dispatch some men to Joppa and send for a man named Simon, who is also called Peter;
6 he is staying with a tanner named Simon, whose house is by the sea.”
7 When the angel who was speaking to him had left, he summoned two of his servants and a devout soldier of those who were his personal attendants,
8 and after he had explained everything to them, he sent them to Joppa.
Here we have a man who has not yet been born again, act in obedience to the angel and it was Cornelius who summoned Peter. These are not the actions of a “dead” man who is unable to hear from God.
So thus the first main verb of the passage is in verse 5 “made you alive” is contrasted against the first person plural present participle in verse 1. Verse 2 says ‘in which you once walked” parallel to verse 10 which shows the new way to walk
In the full context of chapter 1 and chapter 2, the first man verb is not contrasted with the present participle of verse 1 but connected together by the theme of the power of God in setting all things under our feet. It is a unit that is consistent in its positive expression of God’s power over “all things” including sin.
The ‘kai’ (and) in verse one relates the passage back to chapter 1- a continual theme. Chapter 1 highlights God’s predetermined plan for his people to His glory and thus chapter 2 flows through with this thought.
Yes, you are right. The “kai” in verse one does relate back to chapter 1 – a continual theme of God’s power over all things and putting all things under our feet. How is it that the theme of all things under Christ’s feet and all things under our feet is consistent with us being dead and unresponsive because of sin? No, that doesn’t sound right nor is it a consistent flow. Rather it is far more consistent to say that the present tense that we are dead to sin is the power of God within those who are believers and the term “in which you once walked” is describing what exactly we are dead to – the old life and the power that sin had on us that enslaved us. But that sin is now “under our feet” by the very power of God which raised Christ from the dead.
to be continued..
Mark you said:
Now Cheryl claimed that no such ‘additional grammar’ in Eph 2 shows that Paul means a past condition. However in verse 2 is a very clear grammatical feature- ‘tote’ (once). Paul is saying you were ‘once’ like this (dead in sin), “in which you once walked”-verse 2) but are now like this (alive in Christ).
Mark, you made a mistake again. The term is not ‘tote’ but ‘pote’ and it means formerly. The term “formerly” does not refer back to “being dead” but it refers directly to the words around it “in which you walked”.
ephesians 2:2 (NASB)
2 in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience.
You can’t attach the “pote” with “being dead” since it is rightfully connected to the Greek term for walked “peripateo” thus “formerly walked”. In fact this is the only place of contrast. We are dead to the very things that we formerly “walked” in.
SO yes there is an explicit grammatical word talking about a past situation- “once”
Honestly I can’t see how you could bypass the fact that “formerly” attaches to “walked” not to “being dead”. Did you think that no one would notice?
There are also numerous other grammatical features showing the contrast (besides the present participle). There is the contrast between following satan (verse 2) and Jesus.
Once again I must remind you that a present participle does not imply a contrast and I have given a commentary quote to show that. Also the contrast is to the “formerly walked” that is attached to the power of sin from satan. It is this contrast that makes the power of God which has placed sin under our feet to show the overwhelming power of God compared to the helpless power of satan to hold us in the way that we once walked.
This is expoused by the ‘sun’ compounds and ‘en christo jesou’. Also in verse 4 we get the ‘But God’ (o de theos) and then the three aorist and perfect of the verb forms in 5,6 which all underline the break between a past and a present situation.
Ephesians 2:3–6 (YLT)
3 among whom also we all did walk once in the desires of our flesh, doing the wishes of the flesh and of the thoughts, and were by nature children of wrath—as also the others.
4 And God, being rich in kindness, because of His great love with which He loved us, 5even being dead in the trespasses, did make us to live together with the Christ, (by grace ye are having been saved,) 6and did raise us up together, and did seat us together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus,
Here the “And God” is stating God’s power in contrast to what we were which has now been subjected as our old sin having been placed under our feet and at the same time as we”being dead to sin” we are raised up with Christ and seated in heavenly places. The connection to God’s resurrection power in contrast with the old sin which is under our feet flows through our postion with Christ in the heavens. The break with the past and present are with the power of the old sin that is now under our feet as we are “in Christ” and have all things subjected to us.
Although you have tried hard to make the grammar come against my view, the grammar is on my side not yours and your grammar errors show to me that you don’t really know very well what you are trying to communicate.
To be continued…
Mark you said:
So although this may seem messy to many people with all the technical stuff let me conclude. First the perfect indicate verb can take either past, present or future meaning depending on context.
And once again your errors show as there is no “perfect indicate” verb in Ephesians 2:1. It isn’t a “perfect” tense nor is there such a thing as an “indicate” verb.
Verse 1 is not even a present indicate but a present participle which by definition means a contrast is being made.
What on earth is a “present indicate”? No, my friend, “Being” in Eph. 2:1 is a present participle and your assertion that “by definition” this means a contrast is being made is off the wall. Where is such a “definition” to be found? I have no grammar source that gives such a definition for a “present participle” so I would like to know if you just made this up and you thought no one would notice? If you didn’t make it up, please provide your legitimate source for claiming that “a present participle which by definition means a contrast is being made.”
Here is “A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research concerning the present participle:
- PARTICIPLE. The present participle, like the present inf., is timeless and durative.
Robertson, A. (1919; 2006). A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (891).Cheryl has not been faithful to how the greek grammar functions. She has only put forward one view of how the present indicative functions when there are many others.
Here again you (deliberately?) substitute the “present indicative” for the “present participle” right after you make up a definition for the “present participle” claiming that it is required to be a contrast by definition(!) and you have the nerve to say that I am unfaithful to the Greek?
Not only that, but the present indicate is not there, but it is a present participle showing contrast.
And once again you claim a tense that doesn’t exist “present indicate” and claim that the “present participle” shows contrast. How can you do this and keep a straight face?
So not only am I confused at how a greek scholar ignores simple greek grammar, but her interpretation in my view is unbiblical and divorces the verse from it’s context. Cheryl you will have to do much better to convince me of your interpretation and please weigh all the evidence up.
I do not claim to be a Greek scholar, but I have no doubt at all that you are not a Greek scholar. Honestly I don’t know how you can claim to be a scholar and make the kinds of incomprehensible boo-boos with the Greek.
And for the record, I know that I will never convince you of anything. First of all, I don’t need to convert you as you are already a brother in Christ. Secondly when one has to make up definitions for a Greek tense in order to try to sway an argument to his side, it seems to me that your mind is made up already because you like the idea that in Calvinism you can be of the special class of ones that God alone loves leaving billions outside of that special love. It is unlikely that anyone who has such a reason of being fully in love with “the doctrines of grace” would ever see past that love. So, no, I am not thinking that I will persuade you at all. What I am very willing to do is to challenge myself in every way possible so that I can work hard to show myself as a workman that does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the Word of Truth. Should I find out that I am wrong in an area, I am pleased to submit to correction. But I don’t submit to made up definitions of the Greek and made up tenses. That would never work with me and I am sorry that you had to do that to try to bolster your case.
Anyways, I will continue to work through the comments and then we can go on to finish John 6.
I have been thinking that working through Romans would be the most profitable thing to work on next. How about starting with Romans 5 and working our way through the chapters to end with Romans 10? I find these discussions stimulating.
I do find dialoging about the deep things of God a very valuable thing to do and it isn’t often that I get to dig deep as I have with you. For that I am most grateful.
Whew! I got finished with that long comment of yours and I am going to take a break and see what I can finish tonight. It is taking me longer than I thought, but hopefully I get through all of your comments soon.
I think that when we start Romans we should start another post because this one sure has a lot of comments to keep up with. We should keep our subjects separate so that it isn’t as confusing. Game?
Mark,
You said:
Please don’t slay me for my spelling mistakes ‘tote’ and ‘present indicate’. They are just spelling mistakes, there is not need to go overboard.
I think that we can have a lot more lenience with you, if you just admit that you are not a Greek scholar as you claimed – that you overstated your case. It doesn’t hurt to ‘fess up and go on. In fact admitting your sins, mistakes, or whatever is the best thing to keep things above board. After all look at what has happened to Ergun Caner and his embellishments to his testimony and his credentials. He should have admitted that he lied and asked for forgiveness but instead he did a cover up job and now he is really on the hot seat including the university where he is the president http://www.christianitytoday.com/ct/2010/mayweb-only/28-11.0.html
I will comment more soon, but let just say one thing. I realise that the present indicative is not in Eph 2. The reason i brought up that point was becasue you had failed to communicate the broad range of meanings for the present indicative. And since you whole basis is “how does calvinism reconcile the present verb in Eph 2” it was neccessary to show the wider range of meanings. You had constantly challenged how the two can be reconciled, without admitting that the context decides the ‘time’ aspect of the verb.
It isn’t the context that decides the ‘time’ aspect but the kind of literature. A historical present is perfectly okay in parables because they are just stories there is no “past tense” to a made up story. And it is also okay in the telling of a story because the narrator can take the present tense in the narrative and we all understand that it is a literary device in relating a narrative story. But the historical present does not work in doctrinal literature where the difference between a continuing state of being and a past concluded action can make all the difference in the world. In this case the truth of the tense is important and God doesn’t noodle around with truth.
The fact is that Ephesians 2:1 does not fit the criteria for reinterpreting of the tense. After all God could have made it very clear that He was talking about the past as there is perfectly good grammar that would fit the bill. Therefore I asked about what Calvinists make of the tense because I believe that grammar is important and should not be ignored. I also believe that important doctrinal teaching has a second or third witness. In this case that witness would have to show that an unregenerate man is “spiritually dead” in such a way that he cannot hear or respond to God without a resurrection. I do not believe that there is any kind of a second witness to this and it is also for that reason that I reject the teaching that a man must be “born again” before he can believe in God.
Kay,
I loved your post! Thanks for stating things so clearly especially in the areas where Mark was not representing the Arminian position in a correct way.
Keep up the good work!
Mark,
Thanks for taking the time to explain your limited experience with Arminianism. This helps a lot to understand why it is difficult for you to get the opposing viewpoint. It is now clear that you didn’t put the effort into understanding that position before you converted to Calvinism. It is going to make it harder for you to understand us though without a solid grounding in the view of the other side.
My Father-in-law would hold to a strong classical Arminian position.
Is he still an Arminian? Do you have debates with him too?
The crux came, when i was asked to preach at our church becasue our Pastor was away. We were at the time going through a ‘doctrine’ series, so i thought it wise (although i was probably foolish) to go through Romans 9 and look at predestination. This is when it hit me. As i studied Romans 9-11, in the context of Romans as a whole, and as i looked at various commentaries, both reformed and arminian, my whole theology fell to pieces.
From reading about your conversion, it appears to me that it happened rather quick. You were asked to preach and by the time you gave your sermon, you had already accepted this teaching of Calvinism from the Calvinist commentaries. I haven’t personally met anyone who came to a Calvinist belief by themselves just from reading the Bible. The testimonies that I have heard are always that the person either was reading through Romans and needed help so they went to a Calvinist commentary, or else they were listening to the radio or sermons from a strong Calvinist pastor. I figure that if Calvinism was really true, it could be “caught” just by reading the Bible without having to be told what the passages mean. Or God could just “drop ship” the gift of faith into one’s heart and they could become an instant Calvinist. I also have not met anyone to this point who got saved as a Calvinist. Everyone to date that has given me their testimony of conversion has been saved as an Arminian.
It also seems to me that those who become enamored with Calvinism rarely put as much effort into reading the opposition. Usually they become so in love with Calvinism that they read everything that they can get a hold of from Reformed teachers. And so many of these won’t even call themselves a Christian anymore. They are “Calvinists”.
And it seems like the more they get into Calvinism the more they despise their brethren in Christ who are not Calvinists. That in itself is a red flag to me. For if the doctrine of Calvinism is correct it should cause one to love the Christian brethren more not less. But I have been mocked and been treated badly by Calvinists just because I am not a Calvinist. These kinds of brethren tend to mock the opposition as if we are not as privileged as they are because they are really enlightened. And when they are not mocking, they are trying to convert us as if we could not be a true Christian unless we are a Calvinist. It is a really odd thing. Honestly it doesn’t make a lot of sense to me. I see it as an unnecessary division in the church and that makes me very sad.
Looking at the text exegetically in it’s context i could no longer hold onto what i thought predestination was. As such i began researching reformed theology and thus my whole doctrinal position shifted.
It is too bad that you didn’t work hard to see how the text could work exegetically in the passage without having to believe that God purposely created some for destruction without a care to redeem them or His image within them. I think you gave up too soon.
Many in my church were disgusted at what i had said. But it was always good in stimulating discussion and being humble and loving to those you disagree with.
Should you have been teaching this doctrine first without having done a thorough job understanding the doctrine of the church you were in? It seems like teaching this doctrine so soon without researching all the ramifications of the doctrine might have been an unkind thing done to the church. Don’t you think?
Once i began looking into the two different theologies i began to realise that much of the arminian position is based on ‘reason’ and not scripture.
I recognize this accusation as the “norm” from Calvinist books. It seems to me that what you were recognizing as only “reason” was because this is what you were being told.
Things like preceeding grace are assumed but not declared in the Bible. Like wise divine foreknowledge of faith is assumed but not declared. The inconsistencies began to flow in what i thought i believed and so i decided from that point to stick to what the Bible saids, no matter what!
The name of a doctrine doesn’t have to be there to be true. After all the “Trinity” isn’t named in the Scripture either, but is that a reason to dismiss it?
I am reading Calvinist books now and I am shocked at the amount of attacks against their brothers in Christ and the challenges that we don’t use Scriptures but on reason. That is not true. In fact I believe that the most important texts that clearly disprove Calvinism are the ones that they claim as their “proof” texts. I just can’t figure out why they can’t see it for themselves.
But I am glad that you believe it important to love the brother or sister that you disagree with. When we do that we are truly loving Jesus who is our common Lord.
i decided from that point to stick to what the Bible saids, no matter what!
That’s great. Then we are going to have a wonderful time in the Scriptures.
Hope this helps.
Sure does!
I was not converted a ‘calvinist’ in terms of theology.
What do you mean by this?
But as i refelct even on my own conversion i can see the truth in reformed theology. I had no interest in the things of God. I did not fear him, i did not glorify him. But at that one moment when i heard the gospel a light bulb switched on. I wasn’t serching or seeking for God. I know however, that when Jesus calls his sheep they listen to his voice. I experienced that first hand. I indeed was dead and blind, BUT GOD made me alive in Christ Jesus
Just because you weren’t seeking for God doesn’t mean that the gospel cannot be preached to you and you believe it. God is the one who allows us to hear. It is never on our own that we come to Christ.
Cheryl,
I never said i was a greek scholar…far from it. I would have considered you one though (which is what i said), that is why it worried me that you ignored the many meanings the present indicative takes, or at least failed to disclose them to everyone.
BUt it seems you don’t consider yourself one and that’s fine. I won’t call you one if you don’t want me too. But i never ever called myself a greek scholar- let me make that clear.
Now Eph 2:1 doesn’t fit ‘your’ criteria that’s all. It seems that the majority of Greek scholars and translators disagree with you. MAybe you can make a Cheryl Schatz translation to correct all the wrong translators in the world!
Now i’m not in my office with all my greek grammars but here is one example to explain the present participle i found.
“The concessive participle implies that the state or action of the main verb is true in spite of the state or action of the participle. Its force is usually best translated with although. This category is relatively common.”
Now we agree that the main verb is in verse 5 correct? So the action of verse 5, being alive, is true in spite of the present participle. Now Eph 2:1 is an example of this is it not? Despite the fact that we were dead in our sins, God made us alive. It’s a contrast…’while you were A, God did B’, ‘although you were A, God did B’. It is not saying you are A while also B. But when i am in my office next week i’ll get back to you more with the other grammars i have.
Also i comfused how quickly you dismissed ‘pote’. Surely you agree that verse 1-7 is the one sentence, and that whole sentence is reliant on the verb in verse 5. So how is that you think you can disconnect ‘pote’ from the context? You challenged that no such ‘extra’ grammar was present and when you are shown wrong, you simply attempt to disconnect the greek sentence, c’mon now. We dead in sins ‘in which we once walked’. What is the once walked refering to Cheryl? Verse 1-3 are all tightly knitted together grammatically, adn Paul’s conclusion is that we were by nature objects of wrath.
Finally i will discuss more with you what it is you think i believe about this verse. Especailly since you think Calvinism believes that being ‘alive’ is divorced from faith. These need addressing
But i’ve run out of time
Mark,
You said:
I never said i was a greek scholar…far from it.
Look at your comment #354. You said:
As a greek scholar I am surprised at your comments.
This is written as you claiming to be a Greek scholar. “As a greek scholar I am…” I just took the sentence just as it was written that you were claiming to be a Greek scholar. If you were meaning that I am the Greek scholar, then you should have said “I am surprised at your comments since you are a Greek scholar.”
Well, I will just take this as a bad sentence construction and take you at your word that you do you claim to be a Greek scholar. Good enough.
Now Eph 2:1 doesn’t fit ‘your’ criteria that’s all. It seems that the majority of Greek scholars and translators disagree with you. MAybe you can make a Cheryl Schatz translation to correct all the wrong translators in the world!
LOL! Well, I am not planning to create my own translation any time soon, but there are a lot of bad translations out there where the translator has put his own exegesis into the text instead of just translating it. 1 Cor. 11:10 is one of the worst. I couldn’t care less whether there are a bunch of translators who don’t agree with me. Truth is found in the text not in how many people have seen the same thing I have.
In fact many people haven’t seen what I have seen in the very hardest of Paul’s texts yet when they watched my DVDs many of them are surprised that they agree with my exegesis. I have had pastors write me and tell me that my rendering of the tough Scriptures on women in ministry has been the very best that they have read.
Go ahead and read what Rev Hicks writes about the series on Amazon.com here http://www.amazon.com/Women-Ministry-Silenced-Set-Free/product-reviews/B000FW4N60/ref=dp_top_cm_cr_acr_txt?ie=UTF8&showViewpoints=1 Scroll down to the review by Michael W. Hicks. I have received this kind of review from many pastors. Here is one from a complementarian pastor who dialogged with me on the women’s issue during the time that I was writing the script. He was the very first complementarian to commend my work:
The story of creation tells us that both man and woman were made in the image of God. All people are given intrinsic value in the miraculous act of creation, and all people are loved passionately by God, regardless of gender, race, age, education, economics, etc. However, though men and women are equal in value and purpose in God’s eyes, there are passages in the Bible that raise the question of whether or not God limits the roles that are available to women in a local church family. Women in Ministry: Silenced or Set Free examines this question in a thoughtful and persuasive way. Through clear, concise teaching and multimedia, this series provides an excellent presentation of the arguments in favor of a woman’s freedom to serve in all roles of Christian leadership according to God’s leading. Though I disagree with the theological conclusions of this series at several points, I found the series very helpful in understanding the issues involved from a different perspective. Without a doubt, the presentation is offered with tremendous respect, integrity, and grace.
-Dr. Scott Heine, Compass Church, Goodyear, Arizona
You said:
“The concessive participle implies that the state or action of the main verb is true in spite of the state or action of the participle. Its force is usually best translated with although. This category is relatively common.”
Now we agree that the main verb is in verse 5 correct? So the action of verse 5, being alive, is true in spite of the present participle.
You are misunderstanding this. This is not meaning what you defined as “a present participle which by definition means a contrast is being made”. It is not a contrast of “truths” but both are true. We are both dead to sin and alive to Christ. And making the state or action of the verb as true despite the state or action of the participle would also mean that both are happening at the same time otherwise why would it even appear that there are contrasting truths?
The fact is that no definition I came across said that a present participle had to mean a contrast and the way that the text is words and with the inspired grammar, it is not wrong to take it just the way it is written. If there were no other texts that supported our being dead to sin that would be another thing, but there is. And the fact that Christ was the first one who became dead to sin and we are everything IN Christ fits quite well within the text. At the very least you should be able to say that although you can’t agree with me because you are a Calvinist, that my rendering of the passage is within the possibilities of interpretation and has no evidence that would forbid the text from being interpreted that way. I think that would be at least fair for you to admit that.
Now Eph 2:1 is an example of this is it not? Despite the fact that we were dead in our sins, God made us alive. It’s a contrast…’while you were A, God did B’,
The problem with this interpretation is that the Bible shows quite clearly that being made alive is being “in Christ” and also it is being forgiven, yet it is inconsistent with Calvinism for a unbeliever to be “in Christ” and “forgiven”. But for non Calvinist it is very consistent with our view that being made alive is only done for believers and so being “in Christ” and being “forgiven” are all things that are part of being saved and as believers. There is no inconsistency here for non-Calvinists but there are problems in the passage for Calvinism. I don’t like these kinds of inconsistencies. Didn’t anyone tell you before that Calvinism has all kinds of inconsistencies that can’t be answered? That would really bother me if I was a Calvinist.
It is not saying you are A while also B.
That is your opinion of course. But this rendering is not inconsistent with the grammar or the text or other passages that say that same thing. I believe this because of the text itself, not just because of “reason” although our Christian faith is not without reason.
But when i am in my office next week i’ll get back to you more with the other grammars i have.
Sure, why don’t you do that.
Also i comfused how quickly you dismissed ‘pote’. Surely you agree that verse 1-7 is the one sentence, and that whole sentence is reliant on the verb in verse 5. So how is that you think you can disconnect ‘pote’ from the context?
I didn’t dismiss it. It fit right in with the context. Maybe you just need to reread what I wrote. If you still don’t get it, please show me where I dismissed an inspired word.
You challenged that no such ‘extra’ grammar was present and when you are shown wrong, you simply attempt to disconnect the greek sentence, c’mon now.
The grammar clearly belonged to the next sentence and is not connected to the first by referring back. You can’t just connect two things that don’t belong together when the Greek words that it belongs to are right there. How could I in all good conscience dismiss the context of verse two in order to remove the word and connect it back to verse one? Just because it is all one long sentence doesn’t mean that everything is connected to everything else. We don’t treat language that way. If there was a clear referral back to verse one I would have admitted it. You will see that I am not a person who cannot admit an error or say that I am sorry. I will freely admit when I am wrong. But it is so clear to me that you are trying to divorce the context in order to have a piece of grammar taken away from its proper place in order to prove that the present tense is actually a past tense.
At the same time you did not give any reasonable explanation of why God would not have made this doctrinal passage clear that He is talking about a past event. You cannot use a historical present used in stories and narratives as a precedent. It doesn’t fit. God is not a God who purposely tries to confuse us with grammar that is a poor fit when He had better grammar to use.
Paul’s writings are very hard to understand and the only way that I have been successful at understanding Paul is to take the words and grammar exactly as they are written without changing Paul’s terms. It is then and only then that things come together without contradiction. If you like contradiction, you are welcome to it. I cannot stand contradiction for I believe strongly that God’s word is inspired without error or contradiction. So I keep working hard on the passage until the words and grammar can speak on their own without contradiction. I happen to think that this is a commendable way to exegete Scripture.
We dead in sins ‘in which we once walked’. What is the once walked refering to Cheryl? Verse 1-3 are all tightly knitted together grammatically, adn Paul’s conclusion is that we were by nature objects of wrath.
Yes indeed we were by nature objects of wrath when we used to walk in the sins that are not subjected to us under our feet. We are now dead to those sins and they no longer have a hold on us because of the work of Jesus. Because He became dead to sin, so we too can have mastery over what formerly master us. It just fits in the passage and with the Sovereignty and glory of God’s power over sin.
Finally i will discuss more with you what it is you think i believe about this verse. Especailly since you think Calvinism believes that being ‘alive’ is divorced from faith. These need addressing
I understand that in the Calvinist system, faith follows being made alive, but the fact is that it is a system where order is important and one thing happens after another. If it all happened at the same time, you would not be seen as a Calvinist. There is absolutely no doubt that the teaching is that one must be raised to life first before one can hear the gospel and be given the gift of faith. I would be great if you would deny that so that we could be on the same side of this issue. But then your Calvinism would have to be different than the Historic Calvinism and you would be on your own.
I’ll see if there is anything else that I can get to before I go to bed.
More to come….
Mark you said:
Also justification is only by faith is it not? Now I’m sure you do not believe that all people have faith in Christ, so therefore how can you say that all men are justified. This is another case where you are confusing biblical language.
Justification has been bought by Christ and paid for and because our justification was paid for the proof of this justification was shown in Christ’s resurrection.
Romans 4:25 (NASB)
25 He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification.
The question must be when justification is to be applied. It seems to me that you don’t believe that justification was accomplished by Christ on the cross and that it only came into existence when we had faith. Or do you believe that justification came at the cross? Which is it?
“If it isn’t universal in both cases, then it doesn’t make sense. We could then say that the “all” that is condemnation isn’t really for all after all.”
Not at all, the context determines how universal language is understood. We know all men fell in Adam from the context
That is all I can do tonight.
This is still more for me to answer. I will see what I can finish this weekend till I am completely caught up.
Mark,
You quoted me and then said:
“That sounds a lot like injustice to me and any earthly judge who would act this way would have the world in an uproar about his injustice.”
That’s because you think God is obligated to save everybody- He is not. There is nothing unjust about God choosing to save some who did not deserve to be saved. In fact, this is the heart of the gospel is it not. Grace is only grace when it is underserved otherwise as Paul says, it no longer becomes grace.
God did redeem His image and this is a work of mercy that we did not deserve.
I told you Arminians don’t like it!
It is because God abandoning His own image is unthinkable and the fact that Calvinists ignore God’s obligation to Himself makes Him out to be an uncaring, unloving God who loves to create His own image to go to hell. Think about that. Is this really the God of the Bible whose “good pleasure” is to create His own image to go to hell? Why did you so easily accept that when you were an Arminian? Did you not ever think to defend God’s image and God’s name? Or were you only thinking about mankind and forgetting that within each of us is God’s image?
But anyway a few comments. The open theist sovereignty is identical to what both you and Kay say.
Mark, my friend, you are showing your ignorance here.
The open theist believes God ‘chose to limit himself’ which is identical to your description of His soveriegnty- he chose not to determine all things unconditionally.
The true open theist believes that God cannot know the future on everything because the future in some areas is unknowable. Here is an open theism quote from wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Open_theism
Practically, open theism makes the case for a personal God who is open to influence through the prayers, decisions, and actions of people. Although many specific outcomes of the future are unknowable, God’s foreknowledge of the future includes that which is determined as time progresses often in light of free decisions that have been made and what has been sociologically determined. So God knows everything that has been determined as well as what has not yet been determined but remains open. As such, he is able to anticipate the future, yet remains fluid to respond and react to prayer and decisions made either contrary or advantageous to His plan or presuppositions.
Do you see from this definition that God “limits Himself” or is it that some things are “open” and not determined so therefore not fully knowable but “fluid”? The true open theism view does not have God limiting Himself but rather that God’s foreknowledge of the future happens as events happen so that God does not know all things in advance from eternity past. It isn’t even close to what I believe.
Now I said it is logical to the Arminan position, I did not say I think it is logical. I agree with you that it is completely unbiblical. However if one holds to autonomous free-will then one can see the problem if the future is actually fixed- it’s not free at all.
There is no problem because there is two completely different levels of being. For God all things are fixed since He knows the future and He exists in the future just as He lives in the present and the past. But for our existence, the future has not yet happened so what we do now does matter. This is the same kind of mystery that is about God’s attributes of omnipresence. We cannot completely understand how God can be everywhere at the same time and that there is nowhere where He is not. But what is a mystery to us is reality with God. When we realize that the future is complete to God just as His omnipresence is the eternal “now”, we should be able to understand that we cannot comprehend God’s ways. We have to live within this time and know that for us the future is open even though from God’s side it is set.
An Arminian believes the future is fixed because they believe in divine foreknowledge.
I do not believe that the future is fixed because I believe in divine foreknowlege. I believe that the future is fixed because God lives in the future in the eternal present. It is because of God’s nature as omnipresent in every time and in every place that I believe the future is fixed. It isn’t just God’s knowledge but about God’s being.
However if the future is fixed then it is not free. See the problem? That is precisely why open theism has gained support. The rational logical conclusion of Arminianism leads there.
This is not true. We may not be able to understand how the future is already fixed in God’s eyes, but open in our experience, but God has made it clear as He deals with us in our own time existence, that we need to make decisions. If God acts as if our own time that we live in is not fixed for us so that He pleads with us to change and to turn to Him, then we need to accept that even if we cannot understand it. It is when people try to understand God’s mysteries that He has not revealed for us to understand, that is how people get confused and want to put God into a box so that they can understand Him. But we cannot put God into a box. By doing so people have fallen into error.
To be continued…
Mark, you copied my statemdent and then responded:
“Let’s have another look at the verse and compare it to what John himself said in the book of 1 John. John is not going to contradict himself.”
I agree that John did not contradict. In John 11 John is describing believers from the nation of Israel and those ‘scattered abroad’. 1 John 2:2 is describing the same thing ‘all the world’ i.e all the elect from every tribe toungue that are ‘scattered abroad’. Now answer how ones sins are propitiated but not actually propitiated since they go to hell?
It is because the death of the lamb fully pays for the sin, but God has created a plan for forgiveness that involves both the payment and the application of the payment.
God set this up because His Sovereign plan was to redeem mankind because of the image that He placed within us, but His plan included the desire that the redemption that would be fully and completely paid for every human being would not have the blood sprinkled on His altar as the payment applied except by faith of all those who have an awareness of their sin.
There are two condemnations of sin on mankind that needed to be atoned for. The first is the condemnation of Adam’s sin that has brought the sin nature within every one of us. That is universally atoned for by Jesus’ blood on mankind’s behalf so that no one will ever be in hell paying for Adam’s sin. Original sin was paid for by the last Adam. The first Adam brought sin into this world and the last Adam took upon Him that sin in order to pay for it completely.
Then there is our own condemnation of sin that is also atoned for by Christ but it is not applied onto our account except by faith. So when Jesus hung on the cross his death paid for all the sins of all people as these sins were all placed on Him. Then He was resurrected for our justification showing that His sacrifice had been accepted by God.
But God has always shown throughout the Scriptures that the payment of the price must be accepted by faith so that the blood can be applied only by faith. In the OT in the Passover, the lamb had great value but the value was not applied to the account of the house unless the blood was applied onto the doorpost. All the examples in the Scriptures show the same thing – the price is paid and then the forgiveness is applied by the application of the blood.
After Jesus died and after He was resurrected He went back into the heavens to take His blood to be applied on the altar. He is now in timeless eternity and He applied the blood on the behalf of all those who would believe. For those who refused to repent and believe, although the redemption price has been paid for them, they will not receive forgiveness because in His Sovereignty, God worked out a plan where His image is fully redeemed but He has allowed us as humans to respond to Him in faith and accept or reject that redemption. Those who reject the redemption have not devalued the redemption. The redemption retains its full value but it will not be applied for the benefit of the one who rejects God.
Think of it this way. If a man gives a diamond ring to his girlfriend and she refuses to accept this gift but leaves it in its box on the table has the diamond ring become of no value? Well for her it is considered of no value because she has rejected it and it will not be on her finger. But the diamond has lost none of its value. We cannot say that one finding the diamond on the table should throw the diamond in the garbage because it has lost its value. No, not at all. The diamond has kept its value. It is the person who rejected it who has been proven themselves to be unworthy of the value of that diamond and everything that it stands for.
Here is another example.
On December 6, 1829 two men, George Wilson and James Porter, robbed a United States mail carrier in Pennsylvania. Both men were subsequently captured and tried. On May 1, 1830 both men were found guilty of six indictments which included robbery of the mail “and putting the life of the driver in jeopardy.” On May 27th both George Wilson and James Porter received their sentences: Execution by hanging. The sentences were to be carried out on July 2nd, 1830.
By today’s standards, this sentence seems very harsh. Remember, no one was killed in their crimes. In the earlier days of American history the justice system more closely followed Biblical principles.
The system was both swift: “Because sentence against an evil work is not executed speedily, therefore the heart of the sons of men is fully set in them to do evil.” Ecclesiastes 8:11. And harsh: “Whoso sheddeth man’s blood, by man shall his blood be shed: for in the image of God made he man.” Genesis 9:6.James Porter was executed on schedule. George Wilson was not. Shortly before the set date a number of Wilson’s influential friends pleaded for mercy to the President of the United States, Andrew Jackson, on behalf of their friend.
President Jackson issued a formal pardon. The charges resulting in the death sentence were completely dropped. Wilson would have to serve only a prison term of twenty years for his other crimes.
Incredibly George Wilson Refused The Pardon!According to the official report, THE UNITED STATES VERSUS GEORGE WILSON (Peters 7 Report Sections 150-163) Wilson was returned to court as they attempted to “force” the pardon on him. It is recorded that George Wilson chose to:
“…waive and decline any advantage or protection which might be supposed to arise from the pardon referred to…” Wilson also stated that he “…had nothing to say, and that he did not wish in any manner to avail himself in order to avoid sentence …”The case reached the Supreme Court. The Attorney-General made the following comments:
“The court cannot give the prisoner the benefit of the pardon, unless he claims the benefit of it… It is a grant to him: it is his property; and he may accept it or not as he pleases.”
Chief Justice John Marshall wrote the following in the decision:
“A pardon is an act of grace, proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws, which exempts the individual, on whom it is bestowed, from the punishment the law inflicts for a crime he has committed…
“A pardon is a deed, to the validity of which delivery is essential; and delivery is not completed without acceptance. It may then be rejected by the person to whom it is tendered; and if it be rejected, we have discovered no power in a court to force it on him.
“It may be supposed that no being condemned to death would reject a pardon, but the rule must be the same in capital cases and in misdemeanors.”
In other words, George Wilson committed a crime. He was tried and found guilty. He was sentenced to be executed. A presidential decree granted him a full pardon. But George Wilson chose rather to refuse that pardon. The courts concluded that the pardon could not be forced upon him.
Mark, you quoted me and then replied:
“How is it that those who have never had their sins atoned for are commanded to believe (apply) the atonement? Do you not see a contradiction here?”
Not at all. People are born with a corrupt sinful nature that equals eternal punishment. Now if God does not give them the gift of repentance and faith they will be condemned for their unbelief. Like I said earlier, God is not obligated to save anyone- it’s based on mercy and grace not obligation. We tell people to trust in Christ, but if God has not chosen to open their eyes then they will be punished for their unbelief. God simply leaves them in their sinful nature which by nature rejects Him. It is completely just. What is unjust, is that God would send Jesus to die for other people, but that is why God’s mercy and grace are so amazing. It is total undeserved, unconditional grace.
Mark you said a lot of words here but you did not answer my question. I will try again. How is it that God commands those who he did not provide an atonement for to believe (apply) the atonement? Why does God command something that he doesn’t want to happen? Is this not a contradiction?
“My friend, Mark, you are adding that into the Scripture, because Jesus never said it. Jesus talked about those who would come to Him, but He never said that He would only atone for those who would come. By adding to the Scripture one goes beyond what is said.”
Ok then. Well maybe you can show me where Jesus said “I died for every single person and paid the price for their sins, but it is autonomous faith which seals the deal”. I’m not the only one who tries to explain their theology. Please don’t be so hypocritical.
First of all I don’t believe in “autonomous faith” so you are asking me to prove something from the Bible that I don’t believe. But as far as Jesus dying for every single person and paying the price for their sin, Paul said that Christ died for the ungodly.
Romans 5:6 (NASB)
6 For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly.
Every person is a sinner and is ungodly.
Christ died for the sins of the whole world
1 John 2:2 (NASB)
2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.
And God justifies the ungodly
Romans 4:5 (NASB)
5 But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness,
These are terms of all. The whole world and th ungodly. What I haven’t see is any Scripture that says that Jesus died only for the elect or that God justifies only the elect. Surely the Scripture could be clear that Jesus didn’t die for the sins of the whole world but only the sins of the elect, but we don’t find that in the Scriptures.
So it is interesting that you admit that there is a failure in the Scripture to identify an “only” term that would limit the atonement to a small group. Honestly I shake my head at the amount of Scriptures that give the inspired word that Jesus died for the “many” and some want to be convinced that they are special and that Jesus died for only them and a few others and that the God who is abounding in mercy would choose to give out only a little bit of mercy. How does that show that He is abounding in mercy? I don’t see from the Scriptures that God is pleased that the wicked go to hell because He made them that way and that He wants to show prejudicial love to only a few by choosing to save only the few. Why would anyone want to believe this when the Scriptures don’t say it? Is it possible that some want to see themselves as so special that unless God sent Jesus to die for them alone (plus a few others) then they won’t be able to feel special?
to be continued…
Mark you said:
Also he did make clear in Matt 25:31ff that the goats would go to hell but the sheep to eternal glory which was prepared “for you since the creation of the world” (34).
But don’t you see what you are missing? God prepared eternal glory for us “from the creation of the world” because that is His desire for the ones who bear His image. But do you see anyplace that says that those who go to hell are going to a place “prepared for them from the foundation of the world”? Why doesn’t God say this? It is because hell was not prepared for those who are God’s image bearers. It was prepared for the devil and his angels. If you would have not just been looking for a proof text for the elect, you should have seen this. Look again:
Matthew 25:41 (NASB)
41 “Then He will also say to those on His left, ‘Depart from Me, accursed ones, into the eternal fire which has been prepared for the devil and his angels;
If God has predestined most to unconditionally go to hell, then why is there not even one Scripture that says that hell was also prepared for them?
Jesus did use limited language – many, sheep and goats, sinners and righteous, healthy and sick.
This is not limited language as if Jesus is limiting those who can be His sheep because He only died for them. This is the language of those who will submit to God and receive eternal life and those who refuse to submit.
Romans 10:3 (NASB)
3 For not knowing about God’s righteousness and seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God.
Don’t you see the difference yet? The goats are goats not because God predestined them to go to hell, but because they refuse to submit themselves to the righteousness of God.
Jesus whole ministry was exclusive and limited. He came for his sheep and for their salvation.
Jesus did come for the sheep, but the problem with Calvinism is that it says that Jesus came only for His sheep. But the Bible never adds the term “only”. In fact in Jesus’ own examples He said that the ones that the kingdom was prepared for would be cast out and those who had not been invited first were to be compelled to come in.
Luke 14:23–24 (NASB)
23 “And the master said to the slave, ‘Go out into the highways and along the hedges, and compel them to come in, so that my house may be filled.
24 ‘For I tell you, none of those men who were invited shall taste of my dinner.’ ”
The ones for whom the kingdom had been prepared would be cast out into outer darkness.
Matthew 8:12 (NASB)
12 but the sons of the kingdom will be cast out into the outer darkness; in that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.”Matthew 21:43 (NASB)
43 “Therefore I say to you, the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a people, producing the fruit of it.
If the kingdom of God had been prepared for people who rejected it and ended up in hell, then how can we say that God unconditionally predestined them to go to hell? How on earth can we reconcile that hell was not prepared for them but heaven was, yet they went to hell? It doesn’t sound like God has prepared hell to receive a people who are made in His image but whom He has rejected unconditionally so that His image was always meant to be found in hell? There are more and more inconsistencies to this Calvinist position then I could even reconcile in a million years.
More to come….
Mark you quoted me and then said:
“Ephesians 2:8, 9 is not talking about faith as a gift because the term is singular and faith is said to be the thing that the gift (salvation) comes through. If faith were also a gift, then the Greek term would have been plural.”
Not true. Notice in verse 8 what is the first word. It is the feminine definite article encompassing the entire verse “by (the) grace you have seen saved, by (the) faith. The definite article links into the noun ‘faith’ sandwiching everything in between, therefore the singular supports that, since what is in view in the singular gift is the whole statement “by grace you have been saved through faith”. (The) grace and (the) faith are both gifts but expressed in the singular because of the precise grammatical construction. They are not of ourselves so we cannot boast. Your point is wrong.
Actually, Mark you are the one that is wrong. “This” “gift” is neuter not feminine so it does not refer back to the feminine faith. It is referring to salvation not to faith. If Paul had wanted to make faith a gift, he should have used the dative as this case refers to the person or thing to which something is given a perfect match if it is a gift.
dative — The case that is regularly used for indirect objects and the objects of some prepositions. The dative refers to the person or thing to which something is given or for whom something is done.
Heiser, M. S. (2005; 2005). Glossary of Morpho-Syntactic Database Terminology.
The dative case is also used in Ephesians 2:5 of “grace” so grace is a bona fide gift.
Also you stated that it is “the” faith but the definite article is not in the oldest manuscripts although it is in the KJV. So if you look in an interlinear for the NASB you won’t find the definite article there with the feminine “faith”. Without the definite article, faith is anarthrous and should be treated as a quality or principle. It is also genitive which makes the thing or the person the source or possessor of something. If Christ was the possessor of this faith then Paul should have added the genitive “of Christ” to show Christ as the owner of the faith.
“Grace” is the objective and effective cause or the source of salvation and its position in the sentence as first is given the prominence or emphasis even more than “through faith”. But again the netuer case for gift doesn’t refer back to grace but to salvation since grace is also feminine.
There is also a double negative in verses 8 & 9 that are connected together. In verse 8, it is “not of yourselves” and in verse 9 it is “not of works”. Both refer back to salvation, so through the precise grammar in the text with the neuter for “gift”, the double negative in verses 8 & 9 that refer back to salvation and because only (the) grace is in the dative with “faith” without the definite article and in the genitive, the “gift” is seen to be salvation and not faith.
Nothing you said here disproves my point. In fact your own source cited that it is something ‘given’ to the believers. That is, anyone in Christ has nothing to boast about precisely because it is God who gave them their salvation including their faith.
Salvation is what is given to believers by grace through faith. If God wanted us to know that it was faith that was the gift then there were several very easy ways for Him to have structured the text:
- The genitive (of Christ) could have been used with faith showing that Christ owns the faith
- Faith could easily have been in the dative form to show that it was a gift.
- “Gift” could have been in the feminine plural to show that faith was meant as a gift or one of the gifts given by God.
Once again we have a passage that has precise grammar missing that would have made sure that we were aware that “Faith” as saving faith is God’s gift rather than our faith which is a response to God’s work in our life.
Also remember that the genitive case denotes possession and In this case who is the faith linked back to- God. It is the gift of God.
Sorry, Mark but the neuter goes back to salvation not to the feminine faith so what is “of God” is salvation not faith.
So therefore again the greek grammar proves my precise point. Faith in the genitive is the possessive of God
But again, Mark, “faith” is feminine and “gift” is neuter so you cannot point faith back to the possessive of God.
more later….
Mark, you said:
Thankyou for your comments. A few points… you are correct that the verb to be in verse 1 is a present participle- I missed that and I’m glad you corrected me. However this does not change a thing, since a present participle is used as a contrast. For example it is very hard to translate that into English, but the most ‘wooden’ approach is to apply the word ‘while’. Thus the verse would read…”while you were dead in your trespasses…God made you alive”, thus the present participle stills gives the contrasting effect- thus why it is in the present tense. At the very time when God made us alive in Christ, we were presently dead in sin. So therefore the present participle of ‘to be’ still in effect constrasts a previous state to a new one.
The problem with this thinking is that if God wanted to clearly state that it was a previous state the aorist would be the tense that He could have used. But if the action was ongoing…. then the present tense is the correct tense to use just as was inspired.
Now like I have said the context ought to decide. Now it is clear in verses 1-10 that Paul is constrating a past situation with a new. He is not saying you can be both dead and alive at the same time. My position (and in fact pretty much all greek commentators) is also confirmed by the rest of the chapter. Look at verses 11 to the end of the chapter. Paul is calling them to ‘remember’ their ‘flesh’ nature and how they were seperated from Christ, but now in Christ they have been changed.
Paul is saying that they are to be dead to that nature, not just to remember it. If we are dead to sin then it has no hold over us.
So although the present can imply a continuous event, to interpret in this way divorces the verse from the context of the passage.
Now in relation to Rom 6:11 you have made the same mistake. Look at the conjunctions ‘men’ and ‘de’ Now if you know how these conjunctions work, you would know that when the two are used in the constructing precisely like Rom 6:11, a contrast is being made. So the verse essentially said “consider yourselves to be (on the one hand) dead to sin but (on the other hand) alive to God”. See the contrast? The conjunctions are used grammatically in this way to make that contrast. So no, Paul is not saying you can be both dead and alive at the same time. We are dead to sin because we are alive in Christ, in the same way as Eph 2, when we were dead in sins, but are now alive in Christ.
The contrast through ‘de’ does not mean that we are not both things at the same time. Consider Paul’s words in 2 Cor. 6:10
2 Corinthians 6:10 (NASB)
10 as sorrowful yet always rejoicing, as poor yet making many rich, as having nothing yet possessing all things.
Paul had nothing yet possessed all things. There is a contrast here for sure but the text reveals that Paul is claiming to be both having nothing and possessing all things.
“This is something that we can all search and dig deeply into God’s word for the truth is worth the effort.”
This is very true. But the problem I see with your view, is that you are divorcing the verses from their context, and therefore not allowing the actual inspired grammar to function properly. Sure a present tense can be a continuous state of being, as your grammar friend has pointed out, but and it’s a big but, the context always decides the meaning.
I went through the passage very carefully going verse by verse from Ephesians 1 and the context is God’s power over sin through the death and resurrection of Jesus and that “in Him” we have all things placed under our feet. This includes the very sin that we struggled with in the past and the sin that conquered us. Paul is saying that we are dead to that sin through the death of Jesus and that our life is lived through Christ because it was his death to sin that accomplished our mastery over sin. We indeed are dead to sin and alive to Christ. Both things are true. While you may not want to believe this because your Calvinism forces you to hold onto the only verse that can be used to say that dead unbelieving men were raised with Christ in the heavens, the fact is that my explanation is both consistent with the text and consistent with the entire text of Scripture that expresses a power over sin through the death of Christ. It is this consistent message that is the basis of the gospel.
You need to show from the context of Eph 2 how your grammar construction makes sense.
I have already done this. Unfortunately the comment I am quoting here was written by you before I was able to have time to write my verse by verse explanation of Eph. 1 & 2.
As for Roman’s 6, you are simply wrong becasue the conjunctions are clear and cannot be interpreted in the way you have said.
Again you have overstated your case. If Romans 6:11 cannot mean that we are dead (to sin) and alive (to Christ) at the same time, then Paul’s writing that he is both poor and rich at the same time cannot also be true. The fact that the expression of opposite truths that are both true at the same time can be accepted as written is not refuted by your view. To say that the conjunction must represent a contrasting view where both cannot be true at the same time is false and is easily disproven as I have shown above.
Well, I think if I am not mistaken, I have come to the end of the comments that I needed to respond to. Yeah!! 😉 Now it is time to wait for Mark to come back to life. Likely his wife is either in the process of having her baby or the busy time of post baby has begun and so Mark has not returned here likely for a good reason. So when you are ready Mark, I welcome you back. Where were we in John 6? I think it is your turn for the verse by verse exegesis.
For some reason this post is failing to load some of the time and I am thinking that this is because we have gone way past 400 comments. So I have created a new post calling it part 2 at http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2010/05/14/sin-nature-through-man-2/ Could we please comment on this new post so that we won’t have any more problems with the massive amount of comments that have come through?
Thanks!
Debate Points
The question has come up on this blog about whether Adam had a sin nature at the fall that would have been passed on to all of us, and if this is an issue that is important regarding women in ministry. After all, we need to know why it is that only Adam would bring sin into the world and if all of u
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