Cheryl Schatz

Mark, you said:

I have agreed with you that the present indicate can have a linear function. However as I have stated, that is not always the case. The context, adverbs etc determine it’s function and thus is translation and interpretation. But you seem to wish to dismiss this clear fact of greek grammar. Let me show your readers just a few example to prove that the present indicate verb can be used to have a past or future meaning.

Mat 3:1 In those days John the Baptist came preaching…

‘Came’ here is the present indicate, yet the context reveals this is a past action.

I am very happy that you agree with me that the present tense can have a linear function, but you are making another grammar error when you are talking about the present indicative verb because Eph 2:1 is not present indicative. In fact instances of the periphrastic present indicative are few and are logged under the general present which is also where the historical present is found.

I will copy the screen print from the Lexham Syntactic Greek New Testament Expansions and Annotations. Everyone can see that the Greek term for “to be” or “being” in Ephesians 2:1 is a present, active, participle accusative verb. It isn’t indicative. Also the kind of participle used in Ephesians 2:1 is a circumstantial participle. It expresses the conditions or circumstances under which the action occurs in the clause. The occuring action for the circumstantial participle is present.