SM

NN,

NN article and quoted here re Eph 5:22: “But now we move on to the instruction which Paul gives to wives… And as we do so it becomes apparent that there is another sort of love operative here – “eros””

Do you agree that nowhere in Eph 5:22 is “eros” explicitly or implicitly addressed?

NN article and quoted here re Eph 5:22: “And we see that in the marital relationship – when there is “Eros” that this leads to the specific instruction of the wife to submit to the husband AND the husband to take responsibility over this to exercise a sacrificial love to care for his wife.”

Do you agree that nowhere in Eph 5:22 does Paul address or seem remotely concerned with “eros” as a condition for the instruction he is giving wives to submit to their husband?

Do you agree that nowhere in Eph 5:22 or through the end of the chapter for that matter that Paul addresses or seems remotely concerned with “eros” as a condition to any instruction given to husbands?

Do you agree that nowhere in Eph 5:22 or through the end of the chapter Paul specifically instructs husbands to “take responsibility over this”, whatever “this” is?

Do you agree Paul was instructing husbands to “agape” their wives in the manner in which Christ “agapes” His Bride?

NN article and quoted here: “The operation of eros within the marital relationship leads to an natural and God-made asymmetry of the relationship”

Do you agree that Eph 5:22 and the whole of scripture never address, explicitly or implicitly, a notion that a “natural and God-made asymmetry of the relationship” is the consequence of the “operation of eros within the marital relationship”?