Cheryl Schatz

@4 Craig,
You asked:

Are you saying that I can now say that in Greek whenever a noun without a definite article is followed by the same noun with the definite article, it always means that the first noun must be read as “the ……” So there is no doubt that it is “the woman” rather than “a woman”?

Yes. Dr. White is arguing this same point in James 2:14 where he is saying that it is the way that it must be read because of the anaphoric use of the article. He argues this way against the Roman Catholic view of the verse to prove that both instances of faith must necessarily have the definite article.

As far as I knew the context was the key to the interpretation of “a woman” and with the definite article in verse 14 and with the passage taken as a whole including the future results of her salvation in verse 15 which is about one “she”, the weight of the context solidified the conclusion that verses 11 & 12 are about one woman. However I was unaware of the anaphoric use of the article until yesterday. Now I am convinced that it is not just the context that removes any doubt but the exact grammar. Dr. White did not give any exceptions to the anaphoric use of the article and my research on the anaphoric use did not show any exception either so I think it is pretty much a slam dunk.