gengwall

Now here is a curious passage. It begins generic, gets specific about a real person, then ends generic again. 1 Corinthians 5:1-5.

(YLT) [1] Whoredom is actually heard of among you, and such whoredom as is not even named among the nations — as that one (Greek tina – “any” or “someone” – an indefinate reference) hath the wife of the father! —
[2] and ye are having been puffed up, and did not rather mourn, that he may be removed out of the midst of you who did this work (becomes more definate, refers to an individual rather than “any” person), for I indeed, as being absent as to the body, and present as to the spirit, have already judged, as being present, him (Greek ton – “the one” – clearly definate and referencing a real specific person) who so wrought this thing:
[3] in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ — ye being gathered together, also my spirit — with the power of our Lord Jesus Christ,
[4] to deliver up such a one (back to indefinate, refers to anyone who behaves in the same manner as the specific person Paul has been told about) to the Adversary for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

The passage moves from “any” or, in the 1 Timothy sense, “a man” who has had his fathers wife, to “the one” specific real person in the congregation who has done this, to “such a one” as the specific person who does such a thing now or in the future. Clearly such a progression is possible in scripture and it is quite acceptable for Paul to be dealing with a specific real life person and any generic equivalents now and in the future within the same passage.