Craig

Thanks a lot Dave. That is very helpful.
I am just thinking of a hypothetical situation to help clarify things. 2 sources of confusion are that Paul uses Eve (a woman) in his reason for the prohibition and this passage is dealing with a controversial subject. I wonder if the same objections would occur if say an Ephesian woman was being physically violent to her husband. Could Paul have used the same sort of Greek language saying
“I do not permit a woman to be violent to a man. For Cain killed Abel. The woman has become a sinner. She will be …..if they continue……”
If Paul had written something like that I wonder whether there would be any objections to the Greek being understood in the natural way. Would “the woman” and “she” of 14b and 15 seem too far away from “woman” in v11,12? Would the anaphoric reference seem to naturally refer to the woman of v11,12 or would the conjunction “gar” make this impossible? I wonder….