Craig

Just another comment from a friend on the Greek issue I raised @194.

“I’ve spent this afternoon nutting through the Greek and I don’t think your reading is possible (or at least it is highly improbable). There are several points that I would make, but the key point comes back to the lack of the definite article in verse 11. John 4:7 doesn’t provide the precedent you suggested to me as at that point she is an indefinite person. Notice that as soon as she is introduced and John wants us to understand that she is ‘that’ woman he uses the article. Here there is no introduction to ‘that’ woman (anywhere in 1 Tim 1-2) and that would demand the use of the article or some adjectival descriptor.”

This seems to be a common problem that comes up when discussing Cheryl’s view of 1 Tim 2:11-15.

I noticed that Martin Shields @195 did at least say
“(4) Although there are reasonable grounds for arguing for a cataphoric reference for ???? in verses 11–12…”
so he thought it was possible that the woman could be a particular individual.

Any thoughts?