Craig

Hi everyone,

I have heard some comps say that Paul in 1 Tim 2:13 is using the understanding of primogeniture to say that Adam had authority over Eve because he was created first. They say that people in the first century would have understood this argument.
Comps agree that primogeniture is culturally based and not a universal principle. Comps don’t practise primogeniture today. So these comps must believe that Paul is saying that a universal principle (v11,12) is based on a cultural argument (v13).
Questions
1.I can think of examples where we should do a cultural thing because of a universal principle. I can think of examples where we should do a cultural thing because of a cultural reason. But I cannot think of any universal thing I should do because of a cultural reason. Can anyone else? Does this sound like a reasonable question to ask a comp, or am I missing something?
2.Wasn’t primogeniture to do with the first born male in the family, and not really to do with males and females? So would Timothy have really thought of primogeniture relating to Adam and Eve?
Thanks.