gengwall

I’d like to pursue this line of mushy egal thinking but first I want to make sure I have it right. If I understand correctly, in 1 Tim 2, Webb is arguing that the culture believed women were more easily deceived. Although we no longer support that thinking in a general sense in modern culture, there are some comps who still believe the same thing about women and use 1 Tim 2 as a trans-cultural proof. So in essense, Webb is accepting that comp view of women, but only to the degree that it was a cultural bias. He rejects the trans-cultural application of that view by comps. Do I have it right?