Craig

I just found something that may be significant. Others of you may already know this, but I am a real novice in Greek and it was news to me.
I was aware that in Greek there is no indefinite article.
I have been told by several comp friends that “woman” in 1 Tim 2:11 was indefinite. If Paul had meant a definite woman he would have used the definite article and said “the woman” and not just “woman”.
In “Learn to read the Greek NT” by Ward Powers on p32, it says “the beginning of a sentence is an emphatic position, and the most important word in a sentence may be placed first to give it emphasis. Often a word in this position is considered definite enough not to be given the article in Greek.”
“Woman” begins the sentence in v11, and “but woman” begins a clause in v12.
This to me gives more weight to the idea that Paul is speaking of a definite woman, and not speaking generically of “any woman” in v11,12.
Am I on the right track? Is this common knowledge?