Craig

Just thought I would clarify my point number 1 in #77 in case it was a bit unclear. Many of the comments above to argue against certain views assume that the “a man” refers to both the “teach” and the “authentein” in v12. We often read it as “I do not permit a woman to teach a man or to authentein a man”. If “a man” only refers to “authentein” and not to “teach” then this would alter the validity of many of the above comments. Paul would be restricting the false teaching of the deceived woman generally, not just teaching to a man. But he would be be prohibiting authentein specifically of the woman to a man.
So therefore, we have to work out why authentein only relates to a man. We don’t necessarily have to figure out why Paul may be only restricting a woman’s teaching when it is to a man, because he may not be. We might be misreading him.