pinklight

A person cannot give 1 Timothy 2:15 as proof that Eve represents all women by interpreting the “she” as Eve.

As it is made clear that Adam represented mankind, one would think that such a representation for half the race would be made clear also. I mean, if Eve truly did represent all women wouldn’t we have to know about it? In other words, wouldn’t God have made it very clear through Paul? And since it surley is not clear since “she” must be interpreted to mean “Eve” then how could any woman really know? We know that Adam represnted all mankind, so how come we don’t kow anything similar about Eve? Why would women be left out on a clear teaching on Eve being their rep? Did Paul not care enough to make such a thing clear as he did on Adam?