Craig

TL @#93. I am not sure that I understand what you mean here. I will try and clarify what I am thinking.
When we have 2 verbs in a sentence separated by an “or” and an object following only the second verb, how do we know if the object applies to both verbs or only the second verb?
1 I do not permit a girl to run or throw a ball.
2 I do not permit a girl to kick or throw a ball.
3 I do not permit a woman to teach or authentein a man.
In 1, “a ball” probably only relates to throw. We know this because it is quite normal to just “run” but it is not normal to “run a ball”.
In 2, “a ball” probably relates to both “kick” and “ball” because it is quite normal to “kick a ball” and less normal to just “kick”.
In 3 it is ambiguous. It is a normal activity to just “teach”. It is also a normal activity to “teach a man”. Both would be possible.
Therefore, I conclude that unless Greek is quite different to English in this and agreed upon by Greek scholars then it is safest not to base an argument on one meaning or the other. But then again, I could be totally wrong!