Craig
2011-06-03
There are several issues that I am thinking about at the moment
1 The only reasonable way I have seen so far for explaining “she” in v15 is as a particular Ephesian woman as Cheryl does. The arguments that “she” is “Eve”, or “Eve representing women” don’t seem very satisfactory to me. Many egals and comps seem to get very messy in their explanations of this.
2 Cheryl’s explanation of “they” seems a very good one to me, and may be the only reasonable possibility and so may well be correct.
3 I know both egals and comps who can see the force of Cheryl’s argument from v15, but find it difficult to see how v11-15 then fits in with the context eg Kristen. My last attempt @#102 was an attempt to see v11-15 as dealing with the same subject as the whole of chapter 2 and find some possible explanation for why Paul could have referred to the parties involved as “she” and “they” in v15, and “a woman” and “a man” in v12. From the responses I have got it seems like I am barking up the wrong tree and just showing my ignorance of grammar -it never has been a strong point of mine. I asked
“Does that make any sense at all as a possibility to anyone else besides me???”
I have one hundred No’s from Pinklight 🙂 and zero Yes’s so far. Doesn’t look very promising!
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