Craig

Thanks everyone for your encouragement.
Pinklight. @#149 and following, you asked “Craig, in regards to your comment #146, I have a question. Where and how do you fit in “the woman” of v14?”
When I first found this blog, I read one of Cheryl’s early posts on 1 Tim 2 and bought the DVD’s. As I understand things, Cheryl at that time believed “the woman” of v14 was Eve.
Later on, I read a post that Cheryl did on Dave Woolcott’s blog, and at that stage, it seems Cheryl had learnt about the Greek tense and so “the woman” of v14 could not be Eve, but must refer to “a woman” of v12.
Later on, in the post you referred to, Cheryl learnt about the anaphoric reference in Greek and how this would apply to “the woman” of v14 referring back to “a woman” of v11,12.
In the view I am thinking about in #146 (BTW any of the views I am asking about here lately, are not really “my view”, but rather “a view I am thinking about at the moment as to whether it has any merit or not”), “the woman” of v14 is Eve. If I was to defend this I would say that Eve is mentioned in v13, she is naturally connected with Adam in the fall spoken of in v14, she is called “the woman” in Genesis, the verbal aspect theory in Greek allows for it to be referring to Eve, and Cheryl thought it was the natural reading in 2006.
The difficulty with this view is that “she” in v15 then naturally refers to Eve, which can’t be because Eve is dead. So we then have to think who else could Paul be referring to? We then go back to v12 to find the answer. So in this view, “a woman” is mentioned in v12, then kinda in parenthesis v13,14 gives some background reasons and example for the prohibition, then the “she” in v15 picks up again from “a woman” in v12. It is only confusing, because Paul happens to use Eve, a woman, in his example. If he had of given another reason, it would not be confusing because “she” would then clearly have referred back to v12.