pinklight

Before Cheryl discovered the issue of the perfect tense in v14, did you believe that the “she” of v 15 had to be “the woman” of v14, and this was an insurmountable problem and so Cheryl’s exegesis on the DVD must be wrong? Do you now believe that this is so?

Is it possible that “she” could by pass “the woman” of v14 and refer back to “a woman” of v11 & 12? Yes, if Paul’s thought went like this:
Let a woman learn. I don’t allow a woman to teach a man, for Adam was formed first, then Eve, and Adam was not deceived, but Eve was deceived and was a sinner. But she will be saved if they remain in faith, love and holiness.
In this case, the thought though doesn’t make sense, because we are left with wondering why the woman will be saved in the future. What did she do? I tried. lol
How about this thought:
Let a woman learn. I do not allow a woman to teach a man, for Adam was formed first then Eve, and Adam was not deceived, but Eve who was deceived fell into sin, but she will be saved if they continue in faith, love and holiness.
It still doesn’t make sense.