Craig

I “have done” (perfect tense 🙂 ) a bit of “homework” on the perfect tense in Greek. I have found that the definitions generally match what Gengwall said @182,
“The perfect tense expresses perfective action. Perfective action involves a present state which has resulted from a past action. The present state is a continuing state; the past action is a completed action.”

For example
http://www.preceptaustin.org/new_page_40.htm
“In short, the perfect tense is very expressive for it speaks of an action that took place in the past, which was completed in past time, and existence of its finished results. For instance one might say “I have closed the door” which speaks of a past completed action. But the implication is that as a result the door is still closed. Thus, the entire meaning is, “I have closed the door and it is closed at present.”

http://www.bcbsr.com/greek/gtense.html
“The force of the perfect indicative is simply that it describes an event that, completed in the past, has results existing in the present time (i.e., in relation to the time of the speaker).”

J.W. Wenham – The Elements of NT Greek
“The perfect represents a present state resulting from a past action”

Ward Powers -Learn To Read the Greek NT
“Perfective or accomplished action where the present state or present consequences of a past action are being stressed; the meaning of the perfect is ‘I am in the position of having done’.

This leaves me in no doubt that with the understanding of the traditional Greek text books “the woman” of v14b would have to be alive at the time of writing.