Craig

Just continuing on from 261. If the principal wanted to say 1 above (and not 2), but not mention Jane and Tarzan’s names, instead of writing
“a girl needs to learn quietly. I do not permit a girl to punch a boy. The girl has become very naughty. But she can remain in the class, if they continue to behave appropriately”, wouldn’t he have written something like,
“the girl needs to learn quietly. I do not permit her to punch a boy. She has become very naughty. But she can remain in the class, if they continue to behave appropriately”.
In other passages in the bible that I know of (eg John 4, 1 Cor 5, 2 Cor 12) that speak of “woman” or “man” and refer to an individual, these other passages still sound like an individual is being referred to when translated into English as “a woman” or “a man”. 1 Tim 2 when translated into English doesn’t sound quite right if this was what Paul was really meaning. Any thoughts?
Just thought I would get these questions out before your next post Cheryl in case they are helpful for things you may want to write about.