Craig

I just thought it would be an interesting exercise to actually try and find some of these nouns that do not have the definite  article in Greek and yet are generally considered to be definite and so can be translated as “the ….” rather than “a ….” in English.
I thought I would have to look for a while, and I thought it may only occur when the noun is at the beginning of the sentence as the text book quoted in #12 says.
I thought I would begin in 1 Timothy.
So far, after just reading through Ch 1 & 2, I have found  at least 12 examples – and that doesn’t include 1 Tim 2:11,12! Also these examples aren’t even at the beginning of the sentence for emphasis!
1 Tim1:1 “the command”, “the Lord”
1 Tim 1:9 “the ungodly”, “the unholy”
1 Tim 1:15 “the worst (first)”
1 Tim 1:16 “the worst (first)”
1 Tim 1:17 “the only God”
1 Tim 2:4 “the truth”
1 Tim 2:5 “the man Christ Jesus”
1 Tim 2:7 “the truth”, “the true faith”, “the Gentiles”
Those who have some knowledge of Greek please correct me if I am wrong. But all these examples seem to me to have no article in Greek, and yet are translated as “the …” in the NIV.
I have been told by comps in the past, that because there is no article in v11,12, Paul is referring to an indefinite woman, and so should be translated as “a woman”.
If I am understanding these examples properly, they contradict what the comps are saying. There are in fact many examples of nouns without the article translated as “the ….” and according to the text book, this would be even more true if the noun begins the sentence like “woman” does in 1 Tim 2:11.
Surely Paul is not referring to “a Lord” rather than “the Lord”!
Any thoughts? Am I just showing my ignorance or am I making sense?