Cheryl Schatz

Peter, You wrote: (I am tying my definition of “given by the Father” to the words of John 6 – and not something that it MIGHT mean if we are trying to connect some dots). John 6 says nothing about people who had already believe that Jesus is the Son of God. It seems to me that you are trying to connect a huge DOT that you cannot back up by the text. Which part of John 6:37 says that people who WILL be given already believe that Jesus is the Son of God? You wrote: Actually, your views are not based on the Scripture – rather they are based on the way that you want to read them. Seeing that I am the only one going through the verse word by word and grammar by grammar (see the article that these comments are attached to) and you are not going through the verse explaining the words and the grammar, it seems rather disingenuous to me that you are saying my views are not based on the Scripture. How exactly is that so? How would my view be based on the Scripture in your viewpoint? If I ignore the words, ignore the grammar, and state what I think the reader would read into the verse? You wrote, The passages that you quote are not talking about any kind of GIVING. They are talking about the remnant that God is going to save. John 6:37 uses the term “gives” and it is connected in the context to the term “come”. “Come” and “Believe” are synonymous in John 6:37 and John 6:40. Jesus chides those who have seen Him, but do not believe His words. John 6:36 (NASB95) “But I said to you that you have seen Me, and yet do not believe. Why do they not believe? Jesus has already said in chapter 5. John 5:46 (NASB95) “For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he wrote about Me. You wrote: Despite the fact that you continue to downplay my use of the scriptures (I find that amusing because ALL I am doing is looking at the relevant text here) – this verse puts a definitive limitation on this narrative in John 6. That is my scriptural answer. That isn’t a use of Scripture at all! That is a bunch of words that do not reference the verse or give the exact context that you are referring to. You say that there is a “definitive limitation”, yet you give NO words that list a definitive limitation. You are not even trying to prove your point by the exact words that are written. Do you believe in divine inspiration of the Word of God? Or is it a concept that you are trying to prove without using the words because the words are not necessary? You wrote: You are forcing the words of THIS text in John 6:37 by trying to make them normative for all time. But, as I mentioned, it is a unique situation. You are misrepresenting me. If you read my words about Paul and the Centurion, you will see that these sinners did not belong to the Father. They received mercy because they sinned in unbelief. I will respond more in the next comment.