Robin Tomlinson

Thank you for your kind responses, and please excuse my slow reply, as I was out of town and chose to take a vacation from my laptop. When I read John 6:65, it does seem evident that it corresponds back to verse 64, As I read it, it seems that the link, according to Jesus’ words is this: some of you don’t believe, and this is why some of you don’t believe – “it” must be given by My Father. To what does the “it” refer? I’m trying to research this. What is it that must be given by the Father? I heard an interesting illustration recently about a lion. A lion has all the natural faculties necessary to eat grass (the teeth, the mouth, the tongue, etc.) But by nature he is a carnivore. He may be starving to death, but will not eat the grass all around him. Similarly, an unregenerate person has no desire or affection for Christ. It’s not that the person lacks the ability to choose, it’s simply that he won’t choose to come to Christ. Therefore, since Christ is first viewed as repulsive (stumbling block) to the Jews, or as foolish (against common sense) to the Gentiles, there must be “something” (“it?” vs. 65) that brings about a changed mindset or attitude in regards to the cross. Verse 65 seems to say that whatever the “it” refers to must be granted by the Father. I’m wondering if this is what is meant by the “call” of I Cor. 1:24. This passage basically says there are Jews, there are Gentiles, and then this group of “called” – and to this group, Christ is viewed as the power and wisdom of God. How did that happen? This question haunts me.