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Paula

Paula

2008-08-26

It seems that was/became is a matter of grammar and context. Here is an argument against “became” in Gen. 1:2:

5 tn The disjunctive clause (conjunction + subject + verb) at the beginning of v. 2 gives background information for the following narrative, explaining the state of things when “God said…” (v. 3). Verse one is a title to the chapter, v. 2 provides information about the state of things when God spoke, and v. 3 begins the narrative per se with the typical narrative construction (vav [?] consecutive followed by the prefixed verbal form). (This literary structure is paralleled in the second portion of the book: Gen 2:4 provides the title or summary of what follows, 2:5-6 use disjunctive clause structures to give background information for the following narrative, and 2:7 begins the narrative with the vav consecutive attached to a prefixed verbal form.) Some translate 1:2a “and the earth became,” arguing that v. 1 describes the original creation of the earth, while v. 2 refers to a judgment that reduced it to a chaotic condition. Verses 3ff. then describe the re-creation of the earth. However, the disjunctive clause at the beginning of v. 2 cannot be translated as if it were relating the next event in a sequence. If v. 2 were sequential to v. 1, the author would have used the vav consecutive followed by a prefixed verbal form and the subject.

In Gen. 3:1 we see was/became again: “And the serpent was/became crafty from all of animal…” Same exact form as was/became in 3:22.

And another thing: the word for “one” in “was one of us” is echad, which denotes one group, e.g. “one nation”. (more detail at my blog)

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Original Article

Satan The Liar 2

2008-08-25