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Pinklight

Pinklight

2008-11-01

Why has that verse been corrupted by human thought?

It is an assumption that if one spiritualy leads that therefore they spiritualy have authority over those they lead. Why has the assumption as seen in corrupt ‘translation’ been made? Can the addition of word ‘authority’ even be considered translation at all? If the idea of leaders having authority simply because they are leaders does not even exist in the text, then it cannot be ‘translation’ but rather more like first reading into the text and then literaly a thought transference into it.

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Original Article

Pulpit Authority

2008-11-01