john

Don said:
You are using a translation that inserts some words into the verse,
I say:
Actually no I am not. I have read this in English and in the original Greek.  the basic premise you and others are putting forward is a false one! And that is the Apostle Paul is quoting from a letter sent to him by the Corinthians and using it as an example to stress the ewquality of men and women, And this is very bad exegesis!
Never in Theological History has any Biblical Scholar made such a false assumption! The grammatical content of the letter in no way suggests Paul is quoting from a letter sent to him.
The Grammatical composition of the letter in English and in the original Greek clearly show that The Apostle Paul is giving his own instructions!
The context of the chapter is about there being unruliness and disorder in the gathering of the Corinthian Church body and in that gathering Men as well as Women were being unruly an disorderly! The Apostle was reminding Women of their roles in regards to their husbands and that they should not shame their husbands publically by being unruly and out of order. And he uses the written law to show that wives were to be subject to their husbands and this is consistent with the rest of the Apostle’s writings in regards to marriage!