Galatians 328 Is It Only About Salvation
According to complementarians, Galatians 3:28 is not about equality in Christ, but about all of us being in the same “boat” of salvation. The Council on Biblical Manhood and Womanhood (CBMW) has made quite an effort to try to demolish Galatians 3:28 as a basis of spiritual equality outside of salvat
Date: 2008-11-18
URL: https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2008/11/18/galatians-328-is-it-only-about-salvation/

According to complementarians, Galatians 3:28 is not about equality in Christ, but about all of us being in the same “boat” of salvation. The Council on Biblical Manhood and Womanhood (CBMW) has made quite an effort to try to demolish Galatians 3:28 as a basis of spiritual equality outside of salvation. Instead, they say that this verse is only about the equality we have in Christ in regards to salvation. In Recovering Biblical Manhood and Womanhood pages 71-72, John Piper and Wayne Grudem comment:
The context of Galatians 3:28 makes abundantly clear the sense in which men and women are equal in Christ: they are equally justified by faith (v. 24), equally free from the bondage of legalism (v. 25), equally children of God (v. 26), equally clothed with Christ (v. 27), equally possessed by Christ (v. 29), and equally heirs of the promises to Abraham (v. 29)…Galatians 3:28 does not abolish gender-based roles established by God and redeemed by Christ.
But is Galatians 3:28 only about equality in salvation? Let’s have a close look at the book of Galatians to find out if this is true.
Paul speaks about agitators who had come into the community and had thrown the Galatians into confusion (Galatians 5:12). These agitators were false brothers, Judaizers and the “party of the circumcision” and they had come into the congregation to spy on the liberty that the Christians had in order to persuade them to come back into bondage.
Galatians 2:4 But it was because of the false brethren secretly brought in, who had sneaked in to spy out our liberty which we have in Christ Jesus, in order to bring us into bondage.
Paul describes in his letters some of the areas that the Judaizers were working to bring Christians into bondage and causing the Jews to treat some with prejudice. In Galatians 5:2, these men were trying to bring circumcision into the congregation of Gentiles. Also in 1 Corinthians 14:34, 35 these followers of the Jewish oral law were trying to silence women in the congregation and they wanted to stop women from public learning.
In Galatians 2:11-14 Paul says that the “party of the circumcision” had even influenced Peter so that he withdrew himself and wouldn’t eat with the Gentiles. When the Judaizers came along, (Paul calls them false brethren in Galatians 2:4), Peter was influenced to turn away from the Gentiles treating them as second class citizens unworthy of fellowship. Paul soundly rebuked Peter for his hypocrisy.
The issue was not about salvation but about sanctification – the outworking of our faith. Were the new Gentile converts required to follow the Jewish laws to progress in their faith? Paul writes in chapter two that there is an acknowledgment that salvation comes through faith:
Galatians 2:16 nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus…
Yet even with receiving salvation through faith in Christ Jesus, the Galatians were being influenced to “work out their salvation” by buying into the bondage of the false brethren that sanctification now comes through the works of the Law. Paul rebukes them in chapter three:
Galatians 3:1 You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified?
Galatians 3:2 This is the only thing I want to find out from you: did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith?
Galatians 3:3 Are you so foolish:? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected by the flesh?
In verse five Paul continues to deal with the outworking of the faith by giving the example of Abraham:
Galatians 3:5 So then, does He who provides you with the Spirit and works miracles among you, do it by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith?
The Holy Spirit working miracles among them was not given to them because of the works of the law. The evidence of their sonship and the blessings they received after salvation was the very thing that the Old Testament predicted. Paul writes:
Galatians 3:8 The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “ALL THE NATIONS WILL BE BLESSED IN YOU.”
It isn’t just salvation that comes by faith but sanctification allowing one to abide in Christ by faith. Paul emphasizes that the living-out part of our sanctification must come by faith.
Galatians 3:11 Now that no one is justified by the Law before God is evident; for, “THE RIGHTEOUS MAN SHALL LIVE BY FAITH.”
Paul is not saying here that one comes into righteousness by faith, although this is certainly true. Paul is saying that one must LIVE by faith. This is the outworking of their faith and the very reason that Paul was chastising the Galatians who wanted to live out their faith by adding works.
Paul then instructs the Galatians that the way you live out your Christianity will either make you justified or condemned. Those who are righteous will live by faith (verse 11). Those who live out the law after being justified by faith will revisit the curse.
Galatians 3:12 However, the Law is not of faith; on the contrary, “HE WHO PRACTICES THEM SHALL LIVE BY THEM.”
Galatians 3:13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us–for it is written, “CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO HANGS ON A TREE”–
Notice that Paul is talking about the outworking of Christianity. He is talking about the practices that follow salvation. The salvation issue had already been dealt with since the Galatians had received forgiveness of sins through Christ. The issue was now how do they live? Paul says that if they go back to the law, and practice living out the law, they will receive a curse. Since they were redeemed from the curse of the law, they were not to go back to the law, but work out their sanctification through faith.
Paul then equates the outworking of our Christianity with our inheritance.
Galatians 3:18 For if the inheritance is based on law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise.
In Galatians 3:21 Paul speaks about the promises (plural) of God. Then in verse 25 Paul clearly continues to speak about sanctification – living the life of faith after salvation.
Galatians 3:25 But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor.
Notice here that Paul is speaking about what comes after salvation. Now that faith has come what happens next? Now that they have salvation do they go back to the rules and regulations that kept them in bondage before coming to Christ? Paul says no. After salvation comes a life of faith that gives them their inheritance in Christ. Paul then instructs them on what they are:
Galatians 3:26 For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
This is an amazing verse. The inheritance is sonship. There are not sons of God and daughters of God. There are only sons. Each one inherits the kingdom in the same way – all as sons of God. The living out of the faith is clothing themselves with Christ.
Galatians 3:27 For all of you who are baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.
Baptized into Christ is salvation. Clothing ourselves with Christ is our living out our faith as sons of God.
Now comes the verse that some want to make only about salvation:
Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus
Galatians 3:29 And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendants, heirs according to the promise.
Galatians 3:28 is not about salvation, it is about the inheritance that follows salvation. The clear difference between each group in Galatians 3:28 is not salvation but inheritance. The Old Testament provided for salvation for those of the nations who would join themselves with Israel in serving the one true God. The Old Testament also never taught a prejudice against women in regards to their salvation either. Lastly slaves were given the right to participate in the passover sacrifice along with the household. They too could be saved along with the family of Israel. Salvation was not an issue. Inheritance was the issue.
Galatians 3:28 contains a negation of three categories that reflected common ways of distinguishing humanity among the Jews. The Jewish cycle of morning prayers for the men began this way: “Blessed be He that He did not make me a Gentile; blessed be He that He did not make me a boor [i.e., an ignorant peasant or a slave]; blessed be He that He did not make me a woman.”
What was the problem with each one of these categories that caused the men to rejoice that they were not a Gentile, a slave or a woman? In each one of the groups, the inheritance had been held back. Gentiles did not inherit land in the nation of Israel. Slaves were not part of the inheritance and neither were women. But Paul is saying that we must recognize that just as each has received salvation in the body of Christ as all are already acknowledged as saved, so too must each of the underprivileged groups together with the free Jewish men receive by faith the inheritance as sons.
Gentiles inherit all of the promises of Abraham right alongside the Jews. Women inherit all of the promises and rights of sons alongside the men. Slaves inherit the kingdom promises of Abraham right alongside the free born. Just as all have been brought into salvation, so the outworking of salvation, the sanctification and privileges of sonship belong to all.
Paul carries on this important topic into chapter four. Paul writes:
Galatians 4:4 But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law,
Galatians 4:5 so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons.
Galatians 4:6 Because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!”
Galatians 4:7 Therefore you are no longer a slave, but a son; and if a son, then an heir through God.
Paul’s words in Galatians 3:28 should be clear. The outworking of our faith needs to be by faith and not by bondage to man’s laws. We are each the inheritors of all of the promises of God because in Christ all of us are sons! It is the issue of inheritance that made sons the ones to be desired. It was never an issue of women not having salvation but not having inheritance rights.
How should this look regarding an outworking of faith? The privileges of having spiritual gifts through the distribution from the Holy Spirit belongs to all of us. The privileges of ruling the world to come and judging the angels belongs to all of us, not just the men (1 Cor. 6:2, 3) The privileges of servanthood and giving of ourselves for the benefit of the body of Christ belongs to all of us. We are all sons, all heirs, all equal.

When we all come into unity of the knowledge of our equality of inheritance, we will not hold some back because they do not have the same equality in the body of Christ. All sons may teach, all sons may serve, all sons may inherit every part of the kingdom together. And women too are those sons!
I see ‘sense’, ‘notion’, ‘indication’, etc, alot. I think maybe I am notcing more often these words being used when the comp view is being defend.
Simply – thank you
Rachel Re vis. e Re form
The REASON to follow the rules in any covenant is for the blessings of that covenant, but not to be saved by that covenant, as it is not the way to be saved, only faith in Messiah is the way to be saved.
Amen!
Thanks Pastor Paul! It is comments like yours that make me want to continue to work hard and give out my very best. For the body of Christ and for the Lord Jesus!
http://www.answers.com/topic/inheritance has an entry on Jewish inheritance. It is simplistic to say only sons as males inherited. In Galatia there would also be Roman and Greek law and Roman law was more favorable to women in general.
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/BakersEvangelicalDictionary/bed.cgi?number=T371 mentions the 3 possibilities which were different.
This is not an area I have studied, but to assert what you have claimed you would need to have statements about how it worked for all 3 types.
The different but equal mantra doesn’t work then if all are a son. There is no male and female. 🙂 Physical differences are out when it comes to those IN Christ.
Yippee yay, pinklight, I think you got it!
Thanks Don!
Karen,
Thank you for your kind word and welcome to my blog!
Cheryl or Anyone else,
This is not specifically related to this topic but…
I posted about the dust up at CARM over a year ago and today somebody (maybe from CARM) challenged me to a debate over the topic of women in ministry. That’s not my thing but if someone is interested, their contact info is toward the bottom of the comments of the following post:
https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=19951398&postID=596460197829288880&page=1
Thanks!
David
Sorry!
This link would have made more sense:
http://voyageministries.blogspot.com/2007/10/carm-watch.html
Here is the debate challenge that David has referred to me:
Hello David,
I will offer to discuss/debate you on the topic of the heresy of permitting women to be pastors and elders.
Please send your suggested details on our debate format (I am flexible) to carmstuff@yahoo.com, and mention my name JBaker45 (John Baker).
I look forward to having a civil and educational discussion with you 🙂
Here is my reply:
Thanks David for suggesting me! I am always willing to have a written debate on women in ministry especially one based on 1 Timothy 2:11-15.
The problem of a written debate is that the email address given to you is one that has already refused a written debate with me.
If I am to do a debate, I ask those who will debate me to view my material so they know what they are to refute. Once the material has been viewed, I haven’t had a single person willing to debate me in writing.
If Mr. John Baker is willing to view my exegesis and my position on women in ministry from my DVD set and he would still like to debate me in writing, I would be very happy to do so. I am sure that we could pick a neutral place to have a very cordial and interesting debate.
I will leave this up to Mr. Baker. He can either communicate with you or with me at my blog http://www.strivetoenter.com/wim
I suspect you won’t hear from him again, but I am very happy to be proved wrong.
Blessings,
Cheryl Schatz
Cheryl, I went over there and looked around, and I saw that people like me who believe in dispensationalism and the pre-trib rapture are considered “nut jobs”. I also saw that if anyone says there’s New Age in The Shack (article on that Here), they need to “get a grip”. So I won’t be venturing over there to help in the debate, sorry.
No problem, David, thanks.
This is true grace in action. Thanks guys for being a good example of working through a disagreement!
John,
Welcome! Thanks for your comments.
You asked:
I am just absolutely stunned! I dont know how you can attribute that passage to “Judaizers”!
The Judaizers were a problem in many of the Gentile churches and Paul said in Galatians 2:4 that it was these “false brethren” who had sneaked into the congregation in order to spy out their liberty in Christ in order to bring them into bondage.
When we look at 1 Cor. 14:34, 35 we should be able to clearly see these false brethren because of the “law” that is quoted. There is no such “law” in the scriptures that silences women in the congregation but there is a law in the oral law of the Pharisees. This oral law, now written in the Talmud, silenced women in the assemblies and stopped them from learning in the assemblies. If you do not see this manmade “law” quoted by Paul (Paul quotes from the letter written to him by the Corinthians – see 1 Cor. 7:1), please do show me where this “law” is in the bible? Those who are in the Christian church such as CBMW who want to have role distinctions between Christians admit that there is no such law and can only guess at what “law” Paul is referring to.
You said:
“No where in God’s word does it say that man and women are to be considered as equal in earthly roles!”
We are not talking about earthly roles. We are talking about spiritual equality. It is all about our relationship with God and his working through us for the benefit of the body of Christ.
You said:
Yes men and women are equal in salvation, and as Children of God.
However I would seriously check yourself and your motivations in trying to read too much earthly equality into God’s Word!
I would recommend that you reread my article again. The equality I have been talking about is our inheritance in Christ and thus our spiritual equality.
You said:
Otherwise you make the same error that homosexuals make in trying to extend passages far beyond their plain readings to try and say that homosexuality is not a sin.
Thanks for the concern. This isn’t something that we are doing at all. We must read the passages in their context, which is something that I had done in my article. I have taken Gal. 3:28 in its complete context which includes our inheritance as “sons” of God. Galatians 3 read in context will include Galatians 4.
As far as homosexuality, the scriptures are clear in context, that homosexuality is a sin and that no one who practices this sin will inherit the kingdom of God. Can you show me one scripture that states that women who teach the bible to men are sinning against God and will not inherit the kingdom of God?
If you truly think that God’s Word infers earthly role equality for men and women then tell me why Paul did not demand that Philemon free the slave Onesimus to be earthly equal men?
Again, we are talking about spiritual equality. The Christian influence did eventually bring about the freedom of the slaves, but the importance that Paul was bringing about was not the physical removal of slavery, but the spiritual removal of slavery. Slaves were to inherit with the free men. Slaves were spiritually equal as “sons” of God just as the free born were. Slaves then would be free in their spiritual inheritance to use their God-given gifts for the benefit of the body of Christ. No one should discriminate against a slave because of his earthly situation. He was as equal to serve as any other free born “son” of God.
However it is not of God for individuals to demand leadership roles because they believe they have a right to equality.
I do not believe that any Christian can demand any “rights”. In fact our inheritance is the ability to serve. We are to follow our Lord Jesus into service as slaves. We are not our own. We are bought with a price. And when we serve each other in submission and love, we serve the Lord Jesus who bought us.
I greatly appreciate your comments here and I hope you feel welcome and valued. We should never fear being challenged on our exegesis or our service for Christ. Truth is provable and can stand the test. Thank you for your thoughtful questions. If I can help you further to understand a side that you do not embrace, I am at your service.
John,
I would encourage you to have a look at the articles on 1 Cor. 14. that I have written especially:
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2008/09/16/the-elusive-law/
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2008/09/19/is-a-womans-voice-filthy/
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2008/09/21/who-dared-to-contradict-paul/
These should help you to understand why we must see the prohibition demanding complete silence of women in the assembly as a demand from the letter written to Paul. If not we have a serious problem with verse 36 because the inspired Greek contradicts the verses that are just preceding.
Again, thanks for joining the conversation!
John,
Just in case I wasn’t clear enough. Show me the law that is quoted in 1 Cor. 14:34, 35. Where is this law of silencing women in the assembly given, where is its origin, where is the LAW?
Thanks!
Out the door. 😉
And I say, he’s not here to listen or learn but only to lecture and judge. Good luck, Cheryl. I’ve got better things to do too. 😉
What Greek text are you using? I use UBS 4.
Are you aware that the term “the law says” refers to the oral law of the Pharisees?
“In regards to the statement in verse 35: “As also saith the Law”
Does not find its root in the oral law. Its inception comes from Genesis 3:16:
To the woman He said:
“I will greatly multiply your sorrow and your conception;
In pain you shall bring forth children;
Your desire shall be for your husband,
And he shall rule over you.”
Hi John,
Saying that this is the inception of this ‘law’ in the NT does not make sense from many angles. First of all, Jesus came to redeem us from the law and secondly, the above is NOT a law. It is a consequence of sin. Just like you are not in sin if you work in an airconditioned office and are not a farmer toiling on the land. Even farmers are not in sin for using fertilizer and such. And, if we follow your interpretation that Gen 3 is a law and even proceeds to the NC, then any woman using pain relief in childbearing would be in sin. So, you really get into some serious legalism if we follow your interpretation using Gen 3 as a law instead of the consequence of sin.
Many hard comp scholars even admit that the reference to the ‘law’ in 1 Corinthians 14 cannot be Gen 3.
Is there another place in scripture where this ‘law’ in 1 Corn 14 is referenced? We cannot find it. But we know that God made The ‘law’ clear. God is never confusing about His law.
But we DO KNOW for a FACT what Paul is referencing: The Oral law because the Oral law says exactly that! A woman is to be SILENT and the Greek means SILENT not just quiet. Check that out and see. BUT, we know that Paul goes on to REFUTE that in verse 36. YOu may want to check the Greek on verse 36 very closely. You will see that it clearly negates verses 34 and 35.
“This does not mean that a man should be a tyrant over his wife. What it means is that the Man in God’s plan, after the fall, was to be the Spiritual Head!”
John, Kephale does not mean authority in this verse. It means unity and the whole passage is about unity and mutual submission. Had the Holy Spirit wanted to communicate ‘authority’ in these passages He would have inspired a very clear Greek word for authority. There are several of them already used quite clearly in the NT.
If we go with your interpretation then women have 2 “authorities” as believers. They have Jesus Christ, their High Priest and a husband. Are you suggesting with ‘spiritual head’ that your wife must go through you like an OT priest? Is there a human layer between her and her Savior? If not, then what does ‘spiritual head’ mean?
John, I am very sad to see your view of over half of all believers. Many of these are single women, widowed and divorced. Many of these need love and support of their fellow brothers in Christ. Not more rules and roles that are not of Christ. “Roles” is an invention of man. We are to BE in Christ. Not play a part that entails works.
John,
I am afraid that you are protesting too much without a shred of evidence offered. You said:
Again you are making a declarative statement that is false.
Again “The Law” only refers to the Oral Law when that statement is used in Classical Rabbinical literature and Rabbinical Talmudic law which is based on the Mishna. And the Mishna is based on the Oral Law of the Pharisee’s
You say that Don’s statement is false and yet you ignore the context that proves Don right. The fact is that the “law” in 1 Cor. 14:34, 35 IS classic Rabbinical literature and Talmudic law. The key points that line up with the Talmudic law are 1) women were forbidden to speak in public 2) women were forbidden to publicly learn Torah and 3) a woman’s voice in public was called filthy.
Now let’s examine these points from scripture. Were women anywhere in scripture forbidden to speak in public? Did the scriptures forbid women from learning in public? Were women’s voices ever called “filthy” in the scriptures? The answer to all is “no!” This creates quite a problem. How do we handle these contradictions?
You said that these were unruly women that were speaking. Where does it say this? First of all there is nothing at all in the passage talking about unruly women. Secondly there is nothing in the passage that speaks about a loud boisterous voice. The inspired word is plain talk, speech. No woman’s speech is to be heard in the assembly. So for one to get an “unruly” woman in these verse, one must add this concept into the passage. We choose to not add in what is not there.
When I was in Israel in 1986, the instructor told us that women were calling over to their husbands across the room to ask them questions about what the speaker said. I did accept this for a lot of years until I did research on my own and there were discrepancies that I could not get rid of with this view.
The first discrepancy is that most churches met in homes not in synagogues. Secondly Paul had already made it clear in verse 31 that “all may learn”. There is nothing that said that one may not ask questions in order to learn. Thirdly, how could Paul tell women to ask questions of their own husbands at home when this wouldn’t work for many of the women? Many of them had unbelieving husbands a fact that is addressed in scripture regarding how to deal with an unbelieving mate. Would Paul suggest that unbelieving husbands will answer their wives questions? And what about those who are not married? They have no husband to ask. How would this command work for them? Then there is the word “filthy” which would never be used of spiritual questions. How would a question asked about the faith by a woman said to be filfthy? Scripture never once speaks about questions this way but it is consistent with the Rabbinic laws found in the Talmudic law.
Lastly, and the question that I have repeatedly asked you, is where is this “law” found in scripture? There is no such “law” that silences a woman in Genesis 3:16.
There are many more inconsistencies too. Is a man allowed to ask questions, but a woman is not? Why is only a woman’s voice considered “filthy”? It makes complete sense if Paul is quoting a “law” that is being forced onto the Christian congregation. But it makes no sense at all if this is Paul’s command.
Then there is verse 36 which has a disjunctive conjunction which in the Greek grammar means “it is used frequently to introduce rehetorical questions to which a negative answer is expected” per the Exegetical Dictionary of the New Testament Vol. 2 pg 111 by Horst Balz and Gerhard Schneider. 1 Cor. 14:36 is given as such an example and of a double question that we are to understand a negative answer to. This clearly lists verse 36 as standing in opposition to the verses just preceding. If Paul is contradicting the previous statements which 36 stands in opposition to, then how can verses 34 & 35 be God’s word? Would Paul contradict God’s word?
There are so many contradictions in the passage if we take these are God’s “law” quoted by Paul. But the contradictions are removed if we consider that Paul is quoting from a demand made by some of the Corinthians concerning what they wanted Paul to do with the women.
Now, you will notice that by presenting the argument using the inspired words and the inspired grammar, I did not use prejorative terms like “fall into the ditch” nor did I accuse you of having pride or lacking in wisdom. These things are unnecessary when one argues from the text itself instead of making the issue about a person’s motives or their soundness of mind.
So, I am still waiting to find out where God’s law is in scripture that silences women in the assembly. Genesis 3:16 just will not do. It is not a command, but rather a statement of what will follow from sin. God doesn’t tell Adam to silence Eve and there is no mention of the assembly in the verse. God doesn’t say that Eve’s voice is filthy or that she cannot learn in the assembly but must learn from Adam in the home.
This kind of interaction, I think is very good for all of us to see. This is where the lurkers can see that the argument that we have is based on what the text says and the argument refuses to add in what the text doesn’t say. There is nothing about “unruly” women nor about yelling and no “law” that the Corinthians or the Bereans could check out in the Old Testament to see what was required of women in the assembly. God is not the one who silences women in the assembly.
I would also like to comment on John’s quote:
“A person who pushes for equality in the Church to their own benefit is doing it from their own flesh and not from a pure heart.”
I agree with what Lin has said. Not only is spiritual equality given through Christ by the Holy Spirit, but in the church it is primarily for the benefit of the body of Christ, not our own benefit.
We we serve the body of Christ, we are benefiting all. Paul said in 1 Cor. 14 that all may prophesy so that all may learn. When I give of myself, I am a servant to all. We are to meet the needs of our brothers and sisters in Christ and serve them with our gifts.
Can you imagine a pastor saying that he needs volunteers to serve the body. The volunteers need to serve the body by meeting the needs of the body. They must give and give and give of themselves for the benefit of the body. When a few hands go up, will the pastor say to them, “Your hand went up to benefit your own flesh and you do not have a pure heart”? No, a servant who serves all is not lifting himself/herself up. They are serving the body with love of their brothers and sisters in Christ and love for the Lord who died and bought them.
What I don’t understand is what manner of logic that consistently questions our motives? If we would question motives, would it not rather be a question of the motive of the one who stands at the door of the church and will not allow in people who are not of the “right” nationality or the ones who have a certain standard of education or money? Those who hold people back are not to be questioned but the one who wants to give of themselves as a sacrifice for the body of Christ should be questioned regarding their heart attitude?
Something is not right here. It makes me think that there MUST be an attack on the person when there is a weak or nonexistent argument.
Those who pull at the apron strings will find an angry response because people do not like to have to rethink their theology when their theology is comfortable. Five years ago I had to rethink my theology when I was confronted with someone who told me that God didn’t allow women to teach the bible to men. Is this true? I needed to find out for myself. What I found in the scriptures was a whole bunch of contradictions that had to be examined. Why so many contradictions internally within the passage and with other passages? Those complementarian scholars who have dealt with me with charity have told me that my exegesis is thought-provoking and my questions deserve to be asked and answered.
An excellent exposition on 1 Corinthians 14:34,35:
Relative to every truth, there are extremes. Extremes are not seen on God’s part, but they enter in as a result of man. Man’s failures to correctly understand and teach God’s word are the product of many things. Some having a preconceived idea only use the Bible in an effort to support their belief, some approach the scriptures with attendant bad study practices, and some set out to deliberately distort the word of God (Matt. 13: 15; 2 Tim. 2: 15; 2 Pet. 2: 1). In addition to these cases, some verses are admittedly difficult and require extra care in effecting a correct exegesis (cp. 2 Pet. 3: 16). One passage that has certainly had its share of abuse is I Corinthians 14: 34, 35. The passage reads as follows:
“34: Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. 35: And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church” (I Cor. 14).
On one end of the spectrum, we have the teaching today that women may serve as preachers and elders in the Lord’s church (cp. I Tim. 2: 12; I Tim. 3: 1ff.).
The antithetical position is women are not even allowed to speak in the assembly. We are told that I Corinthians 14 verses 34, 35 preclude even speech on the part of godly women in the assembly. Some present I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 in a way that manifestly contradicts what Paul taught in I Corinthians 11: 4-16 regarding the prophetesses and how they were to “pray or prophesy.” One view is that after telling the prophetesses how to do what they were doing in public places in chapter eleven, Paul now decides to change his teaching and tell the prophetesses to be silent in the assembly. Some have introduced these two texts as an example of ambivalence and indecision.
Others, based on I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 have concluded that public places such as the assembly were not included in the text of I Corinthians 11: 3-16. If this be the case, how could there have been the doing of the same thing and in the same circumstance that occasioned the need for the head covering enjoined by Paul in the case of the prophetesses (I Cor. 11: 4-16)? Could it be that I Corinthians 11: 4-16 and I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 are addressing entirely different people and circumstances? We shall attempt by careful exegesis to ascertain exactly what Paul is and is not teaching when he penned I Corinthians 14: 34, 35.
“Let your women keep silence in the churches….” The original is, “Let the women in the churches be silent” (sigatosan ai gunaikes en tais ekklesiais). The King James translators infer “your” from the idea of the Corinthian women being addressed. However, it is evident that the women being addressed are not limited to Corinth. I say this based on the plural “churches” (ekklesiais, see also vs. 36). By “churches,” the local church is meant. More precisely, “in a church” (en ekklesia, vs. 35) refers to the assembly as opposed to “at home” (en oiko).
Chapter fourteen of I Corinthians is a chapter in which we find regulation that especially pertained to the assembly. The use of spiritual gifts, especially tongues and prophesy, had a special utility and function, therefore, Paul is stressing how these miraculous gifts were to be exercised. As a consequence, we read such language as, “in church” (en ekklesia, vs. 19; 28). Paul speaks of “the whole church be come together in one place” (he hole ekklesia sunelthe epi to, vs. 23).
Such spiritual gifts as prophesy were designed for the edification of the church and were used in the assembly to edify the saints (vs. 3, 5, 22). Hence, we read of, “But if all prophesy, and there come in…” (vs. 24). To “come in” (eiselthe) means to enter the assembly where prophesy was being done. Paul delineates the protocol and order for the exercise of spiritual gifts in the assembly (vs. 26-32). It, therefore, was in the assembly that these women were told to “be silent.” “Silent” is from the Greek sigao and means, “To be silent” and “to keep silence, hold one’s peace” (Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words and Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, respectively).
Sigao is used nine times in the Greek New Testament and always with the idea of silence as opposed to sound (see Lk. 9: 36, “kept it close,” KJV, is from sigao). In fact, sigao is used twice in the context of I Corinthians 14: 34, 35. Paul wrote, “But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church…” and, “If any thing be revealed to another that sitteth by, let the first hold his peace” (vs. 28, 30). “Keep silence” (vs. 28) and “hold his peace” (vs. 30) is translated from sigao.
“…for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.” Paul with this explanatory injection states the reason why these women were to keep silent in the church. The applicable teaching to which Paul alludes probably looks to Genesis 3: 16 as its inception. There was something that these women were doing that was in violation of this general law of submission.
“And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home….” All were to learn and be edified, but there was a circumstance in which Paul tells these particular women that they should ask their husbands at home. The original is literally, “…let them question at home their own husbands” (eperotatosan en oiko tous idious andras). Hence, these were women at Corinth who had “their own men” and they had, therefore, the opportunity to question their own men at home (they lived together as husband and wife).
“…for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.” Paul ends this with another statement of explanation as suggested by the introductory word, “for” (Greek, gar). The question remains, who were these women and what were they doing that constituted a violation of submission and resulted in shame? The answer, “…they were speaking” is simplistic.
It is obvious that I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 demands qualification and stipulation. In the first place, to take this passage and simply say women are not allowed to speak in the assembly negates the general command to, “speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs…” (Eph. 5: 19). Hence, qualification is necessarily inferred. As mentioned, to insist that women, all women and in all circumstances, be without sound in the assembly is to make Paul contradict himself (his teaching relative to the prophetess, I Corinthians 11: 4-16).
We have engaged in an exegesis of the passage and now let us look to the context for additional meaning.
I Corinthians chapter 14 is replete with instructions as to how to conduct themselves to avoid and obviate confusion (vs. 5, 6, 9, 16, 19, 23, 26-31). Paul plainly and cogently informed them that they were to be in control of themselves, even those who possessed spiritual gifts (vs. 32). I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 is sandwiched between verses that forbid confusion and disorder (vs. 33, 40). I, therefore, submit that what these women were doing was asking questions (the specific speaking) in the assembly of their husbands in such a way that both precipitated confusion and also resulted in lack of subjection to their husbands.
These “women” were not all the women at Corinth, but they were married women. It is also implied that their husbands of whom they were to inquire at home and not in the assembly were in a position to provide the answers to their questions. Moreover, it is highly likely that their husbands were the prophets concerning whom the immediately preceding verses pertain. Hence, these women were to remain silent or without sound (as opposed to speech) IN THE MATTER contextually being discussed, confusion and lack of submission to their husbands. As to other regulating teaching that is broader in its scope, we must look to such texts as I Timothy 2: 12-15.
While I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 is characterized by specificity, women today can also create confusion in the assembly and be guilty of not being in subjection to their husbands by speaking out in such a way to similarly cause confusion. This is the paramount lesson found in I Corinthians 14: 34, 35. However, to simplistically, arbitrarily left verses 34, 35 out of their context and contend that there is contained in these verses a blanket requirement of the silence of women in the assembly is to defeat and ignore Paul’s original application of I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 and make the passage collide with a number of other matters.
good night!
John,
I am thankful that you are still here. It must mean that you are willing to try to hear us out. Coming into a blog atmosphere where the majority believe in women’s freedom to serve without restrictions and serve without having to be prejudiced against their brothers must feel a wee bit intimidating. I can understand that. But if we are all brothers and sisters “in” Jesus – the one who paid the price for all of us with his own blood, then we have this opportunity to show some compassion and love even if we do not agree.
You made some corrections here:
What I did say which is correct is that the context of Pauls letter and instructions to the Corinthians was because the church body as a whole were being unruly and disordered in their gatherings as a body.
Eveyone wanted to Prophecy,
What I am hearing you say is that Paul was giving instructions because the entire body were being unruly and the entire worship service was being disordered. Is this correct?
In looking back through the entire chapter 14, I see Paul encouraging the Corinthians to earnestly desire spiritual gifts. He then instructs them on the importance of the gifts that are for the common good. He does this by saying a common phrase “edify the church”. In verse 5 Paul emphasizes the importance of body ministry so that all are edified. Up to this point he is not speaking about anything unruly, but only about the importance of all being edified.
In verses 6 to 11 Paul is reinforcing the message that the church is edified by the gifts that are for their benefit – by words that they can understand. He has not mentioned anything unruly to this point and his message is still about edification of the entire church, not about anything unruly.
In verse 12, Paul again encourages the Corinthians to be very zealous for spiritual gifts. He isn’t putting them down for desiring the gifts but instead he is encouraging them and it is a command. But again he notes that the purpose is for the “edification of the church”. This is a common edification so that all may be edified not just the person speaking. Paul is not stopping the speaking of tongues in the church, but by verse 13 he is encouraging those who do speak publicly to ask God that their gift may be accompanied by interpretation so that everyone – the whole body can be edified by the message.
In verses 14 to 18 Paul highlights the importance of body ministry so that the worship time is not about only one person being edified by their speaking in a tongue that no one understands. Again, the common words here are “edified” and the common theme is whole church edification.
In verse 18 Paul shows that his motive is not a personal dislike for tongues, because he admits that speaking in tongues is something that he does all the time, but he moves from personal edification to body ministry by saying that the common language that everyone understands is beneficial for body edification.
In verse 20 Paul tells the Corinthians not to be children in their thinking, but to be mature. Children are known for their selfish attitude where everything is about them. Paul is teaching the Corinthians that the gifts are not about our “rights” but about our ability to serve the needs of others.
In verse 22 Paul states the difference between tongues used as a sign at Pentecost (and for the salvation of unbelievers) and its use in the congregation.
It isn’t until verse 23 that we see anything that would be considered unruly. But notice that Paul says “if” all speak in tongues and unbelievers enter, will they not say that you are all mad? Paul states a hypotetical situation. He isn’t saying they are doing this unruly thing, he is saying “if” they did it. So we can see that Paul is not saying the Corinthians are unruly, but he is commenting on an “if” situation.
Now in verse 24 Paul reveals that if all are allowed to prophesy that this would be a good thing and would convict an unbeliever who came into their midst.
Now we come to verse 26. Here Paul talks about the entire assembly using their spiritual gifts to teach, give a message in tongues, interpretation, etc. Paul does not say they are unruly doing this. He only says that all things are to be done so that the entire congregation will be edified.
In verse 27 Paul does indeed put a limit on the tongues speaking. The reason is that while someone is going on and on in tongues, people are not edified. It isn’t until the interpretation is given that they will be edified. If there is no interpreter, then Paul commands the tongue speaker to be silent since the goal is the same as it has been in the entire chapter – one of full body edification.
In verses 29 to 32 Paul again gives the goal of body edification. There is a limit on the number of prophets so that there will be opportunity to judge the message. All may prophesy one by one, Paul says, so that all can hear the individual messages so that all are edified.
The reason, Paul gives is in verse 33 for one by one edification, he says that God is not a God of confusion but of peace. This is the first and only time that Paul mentions anything that could be taken as a concern about something being unruly because too much going on at once without it being one at a time is confusing and will not edify the entire congregation.
That’s it. Where are you getting all of this “unruly” stuff going on in Corinth? Paul’s entire instruction to this point is all about earnestly desiring the spiritual gifts and then how to use the gifts when they are given for the edification of the church. Everything has been pretty much positive until now with the emphasis on edification.
Now we have an entire change of tone as an entire group (all women) are commanded to be silent in the assembly. The reason is given “for” or “because” they are not permitted to speak. The Greek word for permit means to be allowed or entrusted to have the commission to or privilege of speaking. So women are not allowed to speak not because they are unruly, but because they have not been entrusted with the commission or permission to speak. Why? Because the “law” says they are not allowed to speak but are commanded to be put under subjection.
Verse 34 shows that the subjection is in regard to speaking. They are to be under subjection to the leaders and to the law. Verse 35 says that if these women are willing to learn, they must ask permission from their own husbands to learn at home because it is a vile and shameful thing for a woman to speak in the assembly.
You said:
He was not giving a blanket proscription of women speaking in their gatherings. He was addressing an out of control situation by the entire body including women!
Where does it say that they were “out of control”? Are you not reading into the passage something that is not there? There is nothing about being out of control or unruly. There is an “if” statement and a caution that speaking one at a time in order to allow people to learn without confusion. It is all about edification, not all about unrulyness.
You said:
He was reminding wives of their God ordained role to submit to their husbands and not be part of unruliness or disorder thereby shaming their husbands in public!
I want you to take a good look at what you said. The verse says “submission” but it doesn’t say they are to submit to their hsubands in the assembly. There is nothing at all about “shaming their husbands” here either. The verses also say not one word about unruliness. All of these things have to be read into the passage because they are not there. Why are you adding in shaming of husbands, and unruly women, and submitting to husbands instead of to the leadership and the law? These things that you have added are not in the passage.
The focus is on a non-permission to speak according to some “law” that they must submit to. It is the “law” that requires submission in the assembly. The only submission to the husband that is implied is in getting permission from him to learn at home. This is pure Talmudic law. The man of the house – either the husband or the father – held a woman’s future in his hand. He was told that if he taught his daughter the Torah, it was like teaching her something shameful for her. But he did have the power to teach his daughter and/or his wife it he chose to because he was the boss. It was not allowed in public, but he had control in his own home.
You said:
It is utterly ludicrous to say that verses 34 & 35 are attributed to “Judaizers” when there is no context within the passage to even vaguely suggest that!
Here is the deal – I think that we can agree that Paul would never teach the Rabbinic law as a tradition that is binding on Christians. So if the “law” is indeed the Talmudic law that was demanded by the Rabbinic tradition, then we should be able to agree that these words weren’t part of Paul’s demand on the Christians, but the demands of those who held to the Rabbinic law.
So here is where the rubber meets the road. Where is this “law” found? It is easily found in the Talmudic traditions of the Jews. Is it also found in the scriptures? There is no way this “law” that forces women to submit to silence in the assembly is found in the OT. If so, please show me where it is. It certainly is not found in Genesis 3:16 and this is now being admitted by serious complementarian scholars.
So unless you can find such a “law” that forces submission on women to silence in the assembly, then we must accept that this is not God’s command but man’s command being forced on the Christians. If it is man’s command, then without a doubt it is the Talmudic law that was being demanded by false brethren that had infiltrated all the other churches too. Are there any other options? I don’t think so.
You said:
Just because you have found an oral tradition that discriminates against women under all circumstances does not mean you can shoe horn the interpetation of verses 34 & 35 into being that oral law!
You are right. Just because this Talmudic tradition discriminates against women does not have to mean that the scriptures could not also have the same type of law. If this “law” is also found in the scriptures, then we can attribute it to Paul even though it appears to contradict everything that Paul has said up to this point about women speaking in the assembly and all women learning in the assembly (not just at home!) So where is this law? Where is the scriptural location of the law that commands women to submit to silence in the assembly?
Where is this law that says that women’s voices are filthy and they are not allowed to speak in the assembly? I can find this in the Talmud, but can you find it in the scriptures? If you cannot, then your exegesis has a serious problem. Now you have a “law” appealed to that doesn’t exist in God’s word. You also have a “law” appealed to that is exactly the same as the immoral man-made laws of the Jews. You also have a “law” that is appealed to that contradicts Paul’s injunction for women to learn in the assembly and for them to speak in the assembly. This is major bad news for you because it is an unsolvable contradiction.
But we have Paul to the rescue. In verse 36 he uses the Greek construction that would come close to us saying “What!?! No way! Who told you that only men can speak (the word of God coming only from men) and only men can learn the word of God (only men can have the word of God come to them)? Nonsense! If anyone is spiritual and mature, Paul says, let them acknowledge that everything I have been telling you is the commands of the Lord. It is the command of the Lord that women are to earnestly desire to have the spiritual gifts. It is the command of the Lord that women are allowed to prophesy and to speak in tongues and to interpret and to teach. It is the command of the Lord that women are to learn. The man-made command of the Rabbinic law are to be rejected as ignorant and not from God.
You also said:
And again in regards to someone demanding equality within a Body, No it is not of God to demand equality, man or woman. Because what they are demanding is fallen fleshly equality. God does not honor a request like that.
Let’s go back through 1 Corinthians 14. Does Paul say that the body is to demand the spiritual gifts? No. But he does say that all are allowed, in fact all are commanded to earnestly desire spiritual gifts. Men and women are also given the freedom to use those gifts for the edification of the church. This is not a fleshy thing but a God-commanded revelation from Paul. God does honor our request as we earnestly desire spiritual gifts for the edification of the church.
You said:
But it is misplaced and when you rely on wronged feelings to drive your theology this is where it leads!
My friend, I think you have been reading the wrong blog. I have said not one word about interpreting scripture by “feelings” or by a sense of being “wronged”. What drives the theology here is a whole hearted desire for the truth of God’s word in context and to let go of man-made traditions that are faulty. When we go through the scriptures verse by verse, the false doctrine falls away as the truth of God has our attention.
You said:
I have no issue with women in leadership, i have no fear of women in leadership, or women as preachers, I know many! But what I do not like is people mishandling Gods word to try and manipulate it to fit their skewed ideology.
That is good that you say you are not prejudiced. I too do not like people mishandling God’s word. I have given a very careful verse by verse explanation of the passage in context, so if I am guilty of manipulation, then surely you should easily be able to show me my “manipulation” of the text.
You said:
God’s Word is antithetical to Rabinnical Tradition! for anyone to attempt to use it to interpret the New Testament is Spiritually blind!
I reject your position not because I fear an different “viewpoint” I reject it because it is clearly false, and it mishandles a passage for a personal fallen agenda.
I have not tried to interpret the New Testament by Rabbinical tradition at all. All I have done is show the context of the passage and shown the link to the Rabbinical prohibition and then I have challenged you to show me a “law” from God’s word that could fit the prohibition. So far you have failed to do this. If you have something where you can correct me and how me my errors, I am willing to listen. Correct me if I am wrong.
I would also ask you to stop using personal attacks. You have not shown in any way that I have a “personal fallen agenda” and you and I both know that you cannot read my heart neither do you even know me as a person. I love complementarians to stop by here to give their input and their thoughts on the text, but personal attacks are unwarranted. Do I have your agreement to stop with the personal attacks and just stick to the issue at hand? I have a great deal of patience but I do not want to see others who read this blog hurt and ripped apart by attacks from someone who should love and care for them as a dear brother in Christ. Deal?
Okay, I will go through your last post as I can. It looks like a cut and paste. It is far better to have you say it in your own words, but I will allow it this time. When one paraphrases using their own words, one shows their own understanding.
John,
In your comment #97, you copy and paste from a scholar that you say gives an excellent exposition. This scholar says:
Paul with this explanatory injection states the reason why these women were to keep silent in the church. The applicable teaching to which Paul alludes probably looks to Genesis 3: 16 as its inception. There was something that these women were doing that was in violation of this general law of submission.
Notice the author says “applicable teaching” “Paul alludes” and “probably”. This is the the problem I see everywhere for those who claim there is a scriptural “law”. They just cannot find the “law” in the Old Testament. Without admitting that the only “law”exists in the Rabbinic tradition of the oral law, they must say “probably” because there is no such “law” in the Old Testament. This author does not state that Genesis 3:16 is the “law”. He also says this is a “general law of submission”. Really? There is no such “general law” of submission in Genesis 3:16. The word submission or submit doesn’t even appear there. There is no command by God for Eve to submit and most genuine scholars now admit that the “rule” that God predicts will happen after sin is not a good thing but a harsh and severe domination of the man over the woman, hardly a command by God.
The author says:
The original is literally, “…let them question at home their own husbands”
This is not quite right. The literal wording is for the woman to ask, to seek to demand to beg of. This is a demand or a seeking to learn. It follows then that the seeking to learn is commanded to be done at home, not in the congregation.
The author says:
These “women” were not all the women at Corinth, but they were married women. It is also implied that their husbands of whom they were to inquire at home and not in the assembly were in a position to provide the answers to their questions. Moreover, it is highly likely that their husbands were the prophets concerning whom the immediately preceding verses pertain. Hence, these women were to remain silent or without sound (as opposed to speech) IN THE MATTER contextually being discussed, confusion and lack of submission to their husbands.
This explanation has a lot of problems. Is he saying that there is a “law” that silences only married women in the church? That single women can prophesy and learn and ask questions but married women had to learn at home and keep their mouths shut in the congregation? Where is such a law that restricts married women from speaking in the assembly? He hasn’t provided such a law. He also gives the context of “confusion” for chapter 14, when it is edification of the church that is the subject. Paul was concerned that all would be able to learn, so that all would be edified, not just the speaker. The context throughout the chapter is not confusion but edification. Avoiding confusion is listed in verse 33 as the reason that the spirits of the prophets are to be subject to prophets. The fruit of the Spirit of self-control goes right along with the gifts of the Spirit.
There is nothing in the context that says women were not submitting to their husbands in the assembly. This is a tradition that is not found in the text.
Lastly the author said:
While I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 is characterized by specificity, women today can also create confusion in the assembly and be guilty of not being in subjection to their husbands by speaking out in such a way to similarly cause confusion. This is the paramount lesson found in I Corinthians 14: 34, 35. However, to simplistically, arbitrarily left verses 34, 35 out of their context and contend that there is contained in these verses a blanket requirement of the silence of women in the assembly is to defeat and ignore Paul’s original application of I Corinthians 14: 34, 35 and make the passage collide with a number of other matters.
This is the problem. 1 Cor. 14:34, 35 as it is without some kind of explanation causes it to conflict with what Paul had already said about women. So the author adds in a “law” that only forbids married women from speaking in the assembly, assuming that if they speak out they will be creating confusion and they will not be in submission to their husbands.
How does this fit? For one thing there is no such “law” that one can find in the OT. Secondly, it seems out of line for Paul to be forbidding married women from speaking while allowing unmarried women to freely prophesy and speak out as their gifts give them the freedom. Are married women suddenly all disrespectful? And single women are just fine?
It also doesn’t fit because many married women like myself have husbands who insist that I speak out and who encourages me to do so for the common good. How would that fit within a blanket “law” that forbids married women from speaking in the assembly? No matter which way you slice it, there is still the issue of the missing “law”. Where is such a law that either outlaws all women or all married women from speaking in the assembly? Folks, it just isn’t in the bible. But it is in the Rabbinical oral law of the Jews.
The other thing that I notice is that the author says nothing about verse 36. Why is that? Verse 36 is clearly worded to contradict what was just preceding it. What is Paul contradicting and why? If verses 34 & 35 are Paul’s own commands given to him from the Lord, then why would he contradict this command in verse 36? Here we have the contradictions again that have not been addressed by complementarians.
There is a way to tie together all the commands of Paul’s in the preceding verses that command women to seek for spiritual gifts, and the command for them to use these gifts for the edification of the church. When we understand the extreme misogynist culture of that day and the strong Jewish roots that some had that demanded women to be silent, we can understand why Paul highlighted the quote from the Corinthian letter and then promptly refuted the demands to silence women. Paul would not stand for even one minute to allow anyone to silence the gifts of God. Paul commanded that the gifts be earnestly desired and then used for the benefit of all. For anyone to silence half the gifts of the congregation because they belonged to women would cause Paul to hit the roof. The commands of the Lord listed throughout 1 Cor 14 override and refute the demand of men in verses 34 & 35. Verse 36 proves this case and Paul allows women to also have the word of God “come to them” (allowing them to learn) and “go out through them” as they too minister for the benefit of all.
Hi Cheryl,
Thank you. Thank you. Thank you. And I thank God for you and your wonderfully logical mind.
Janice,
You are welcome and thank you for sharing an encouraging word with me today!
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