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john

john

2008-12-01

Cheryl,

Your questions are immaterial as you cannot defend the position that the basic grammatical structure of the passage or even any of 1 Corinthians supports the very phantom hypothesis that the Apostle Paul in this passage is referring to a letter that he has received from Corinth that attributes verses 34 & 35 to Judaizers and the Oral Law. And then later in the Chapter Paul refuting this premise.

You and others on this thread refuse to accept what is clear. And instead you chose to turn simple grammatical clarity on its head to try and force what is not there simly because you believe that “as also saith the Law” refers to the Pharisee’s Oral Law.

And hypothetically speaking even if it did refer to the oral law it would render the passage as complete nonsense.

It is sad that people refuse to accept clear grammatical structure and instead fall into a ditch while trying to construct a whole phantom context.

And in regards to whether a person is a complementarian or an Egalitarian. You can come at Scripture with with preconcieved notions that obscure the clear text. And people do not always have to have overt agenda’s. They can be blinded by their own fallen flesh (pride) and not allow themselves to accept what is being said in God’s Word because it cuts their pride.

God’s word stands apart from complementarianism or Egalitarianism. Both concepts in and of themselves are lacking in understanding and Spiritual Wisdom.

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Original Article

Galatians 328 Is It Only About Salvation

2008-11-18