Lin

John, All we are asking is for you to show us where this ‘law’ is in scripture. We know it is not Gen 3 because that is NOT a law. God is always very clear about His laws. They are not vague and we don’t have to read into them.

So, where is the law that says woman must be silent (Greek meaning must not speak) in the Body of Christ? And why would Paul contradict himself by assuming woman are prophesying and praying in the church in other passages in Corinthians? Why would he say ALL may prophesy in verse 31? Or why in 11:5 is Paul assuming women are already prophesying in the Corinthian church when he addresses headcoverings? This makes no sense. Paul is not contradicting himself.

Paul is also saying in verse 35 that it is ‘shameful’ (some translations say improper) for a woman to speak. That word  “shameful” in Greek means vile and filthy. Would Paul be saying that a woman speaking in the Body of Christ as vile and filthy?

No, he would not. But we KNOW for a FACT the Oral law teaches exactly that…a woman’s voice is vile and filthy.