Paula

I got Chris’s reply by email but he has not yet moved it here, so I’ll include it as a quote:

Paula: “Note also that the tense of ‘has become’ shows continuing action in the present, meaning the woman Paul refers to is not Eve but a woman living at the time, since whoever she is she is STILL in a state of error as of his writing.”

In 1 Timothy 2:14 “ginomai” is in the perfect tense.

http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/verbs1.htm#PERFECT:
“The basic thought of the perfect tense is that the progress of an action has been completed and the results of the action are continuing on, in full effect. In other words, the progress of the action has reached its culmination and the finished results are now in existence. Unlike the English perfect, which indicates a completed past action, the Greek perfect tense indicates the continuation and present state of a completed past action. ”

The action is not continuing in the present as you claim. As the definition says, “The progress of the action has been completed and the results of the action are continuing on.”

I see no problem here for the patriarchalist view since they will certainly agree that Eve’s completed action has continuing consequence

Chris,

The definition you supplied is exactly what I was trying to convey, that is, that Paul is addressing a situation that still existed at the time of the writing. My choice of the word “action” was perhaps confusing to you.

Now let’s take your interpretation into the verses and see how it works. You say Eve is “the woman”:

For Adam was first formed then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but Eve was deceived and continues in the transgression. Notwithstanding, Eve will be saved in the childbearing if women who came after her continue in faith and charity…

You err in overlooking the fact that the woman who was deceived is the one continuing in transgression— which is impossible for Eve. If “a woman” is Eve, then it is Eve who continues to suffer the effects of her sin!

You have acknowledged that the Greek verb has continuing consequences, but on whom? And the “she” of vs. 15 is still that same woman, whom you say is Eve. Explain. Are you actually saying that Eve’s sin has been conferred upon all women for all time– yet somehow Adam’s sin has not? And if his sin has been conferred upon all men for all time, then all men are guilty of failure to lead and protect!

You can’t have it both ways. Either Eve is still suffering the consequences of her sin and can only be saved if future women remain in faith, or you believe that all women are deceived like Eve, in spite of being in Christ, because you think Paul only charges women with having to remain faithful.