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gengwall

gengwall

2009-06-22

I just had one of those epiphanies that sometimes come over me. Maybe this has all been said before and I am just dense and missed it, but it occurs to me that 1 Tim 2:11-12 remain completely within the marital realm, and specifically within the dynamics of the marriage being addressed, and have absolutely nothing to do with women’s conduct IN CHURCH. In verse 12 in particular, is it not just the husband who is the object of both the “exercising authority over” and the “teaching”? Moreover, verses 11 and 12 are bookended by this idea of the specific woman being in a state of peacfulness. And the “all subjection” referenced in vs. 11 harkens back to Paul’s instruction for wives in Ephesians 5 to “submit…in all things” to their husbands. Call me looney (or forgetful) but I don’t see how verses 11-12 (or thru 15 for that matter) have one bit of relevance to the congregational setting. How can people claim these verses are meant to keep women silent IN CHURCH and teaching only other women and children IN CHURCH when they seem to only be dealing with what is going on between a particular husband and wife IN MARRIAGE?

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Original Article

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