Craig

I am looking forward to your book, Cheryl.
Sorry if this question seems a bit obvious or repetitive but I just want to sure I understand your view properly.
I have asked this question before, because I know there are some different views amongst egals on it. Gengwall has mentioned a book he is reading which may have a slightly different view.
Am I correct in thinking that in your view Cheryl,
“teach” refers to false teaching by a particular Ephesian woman that may have been directed toward and influencing many people in the church – not just her husband.
“to have authority over” (NIV) is just directed to her husband.
In other words “to teach” and “to have authority over” don’t necessarily have to have the same target group.
In discussing this passage with one comp fellow, he said to me that if it is just referring to a particular wife and her husband, it would be strange for a “false teacher” to be just “false teaching” her husband and no one else. He thought the “teach” and “authority over” would need to be directed just to the husband.
But I don’t think you are saying that are you?