Craig

Just clarifying my question a bit.
My comp friend seems to think that the way Paul has written v12, “to teach” and “to have authority over” both need to be directed toward “a man”. If “a man” is interpreted as a particular woman’s husband then my friend thinks that would mean that the false teaching must only be towards the husband. This my friend thinks would be unlikely.
I have said that I think the false teaching could be directed to many people while the “authority over” was to her husband. Am I correct? Is this what you are saying Cheryl or am I totally mixed up? I hope my question is clear and not mixed up 🙂