Craig

Holly @ 110,
You said
“Given the cultural barring of women from learning or speaking to men in public, why do we assume that women teachers are included within the deceived teachers of 1 Tim 1?”

I am just thinking aloud, and I will mention a couple of points in case they are helpful.
1. If the logic of your question is like this?
The culture barred women from speaking to men in public.
Therefore women couldn’t have been false teachers.
Therefore Paul couldn’t have been referring to them in 1 Tim 1.

It would then be just as logical to say
The culture barred women from speaking to men in public.
Therefore women couldn’t have been teachers.
Therefore Paul couldn’t have been referring to them in 1 Tim 2:11-15.

Both are not valid, because there obviously was some form of teaching going on (comps say correct teaching, egals say false reaching) for Paul to need to write 1 Tim 2:11-15.

2. Also, as far as I am aware, 1 Tim 1:3 uses the Greek term for people, not just men.

Feel free anyone to correct me anyone if needed.