gengwall

Good questions Cheryl. Let me say first that I’m not “saying” anything really. I’m just suggesting a reason why Paul might have begun with indefinate singular nouns and ended with definite. So…

Are you saying that Timothy was to understand Paul in verse 11 that ‘any woman’…

Yes – I’m saying that maybe Paul wanted Timothy to understand vs. 11 and 12 to mean “any” couple who were in similar circumstances. That doesn’t mean that Timothy’s specific woman isn’t in view exactly. It just means that she isn’t the only one.

“Authentein” is a very rare word and with a specific meaning to Timothy. Are you saying that there would be many more women who were doing this to their husbands?…

Ephesus was a very pagan city with, female dominated cults. It isn’t too far of a stretch to believe that there might have been others involved in similar “authentein” behavior. Although I wouldn’t go as far as saying it was unique to Ephesus, it may be that it was predominant in Ephesus.

If this is what you are saying, then is there anyone in particular that Timothy is to stop from teaching per verse 12 or is this just in case there is anyone like this, this is what you are to do?

Timothy is to stop his example woman and any others he may run into per vs. 12. His specific woman certainly is not exempt from the prohibition. Nor may she be the only one needing prohibition.

If verse 11 is generic, would it not have been natural for Paul to continue with the term “women” instead of “woman”? And if verse 11 and 12 are generic “woman” and not a specific woman, then is the “they” of verse 15 also generic women who are deceived?

Paul could have continued in the plural but Timothy provided a specific example, and one that was taking place in a marriage setting, which necessitates a shift to singular. That also excludes the “they” of vs. 15 from referring to a group of deceived “women” because “women” have not been the object of the teaching, “a [generic] woman” has. As you have often pointed out, “she” can not be a “they”. The only “they” that has ever been in view is an individual wife and her husband, whether they are generic or Timothy’s example couple. Since the focus has shifted in vs. 14 away from the generic and to the specific couple, the most immediate “they” is that specific couple.

I want to emphasize that I am not insisting it has to be this way. But many people struggle with the lack of the definate article in vss. 11 and 12. This is a possible explanation for that grammar which doesn’t detract at all from Paul’s central instruction nor leave Timothy’s specific couple out in the cold.