Cheryl Schatz
2009-11-03
Kay,
You asked:
It seems like one has to twist oneself into an impossible hermenutical pretzel in order to “prove” that Eve was out of submission before the Fall….(Have you ever been able to directly question any comp leaders/teachers about this…uhhh, hemmm… little problem?
When I have asked these questions on other forums/blogs I either get silence back or else answers that assume their position without even trying to prove it. The only challenge they offer is that God talked to Adam first. But this proves nothing unless God defines this as meaning what the comps want it to mean. There is no direct or indirect command for Adam to rule Eve or to take his authority over her at their creation and if we think we can add to God’s Words a meaning from silence then we could “prove” that women should now “rule” man because God approached Mary first and then Joseph was contacted only after Mary was already pregnant. Buttress that with the fact that women were the first apostles sent out to give the men the message of the resurrection. Should we be “proving” that these very special things “prove” that women are to “rule” men and must now take authority over them? That would be ridiculous! One gender ruling the other gender in either direction is not a godly command in the Bible and no amount of reading into the text even by who was created first is good enough as a proof.
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