Women On Trial
I have just uploaded onto youtube 6 approximately 10-minute clips from my 2006 talk in Pennsylvania at the Witnesses Now for Jesus Conference. I have added the videos below
Date: 2009-10-31
URL: https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2009/10/31/women-on-trial/
I have just uploaded onto youtube 6 approximately 10-minute clips from my 2006 talk in Pennsylvania at the Witnesses Now for Jesus Conference. I have added the videos below.
The first clip includes the testimony of Lorri MacGregor who is a former Jehovah’s Witness who God called into ministry after she left the Watchtower. She had a huge struggle with God because of her belief that women could not be teachers. The talk is called Jehovah’s Women on Trial – are you ready to be challenged? It is a simulated court case against two Biblical women using the charges against them by the Jehovah’s Witnesses. You will likely see a lot of similarities in the charges because they can also be found in complementarian churches. I trust that many people will be challenged to start to think outside of the box because of these clips. This will be the post where we can discuss the clips.
Poor Eve. All these built up accusations against here without a shred of evidence and even there being proof of her innocence! What a shame that she should be treated with such disdain.
Thank you pinklight! I see a sympathetic witness. I may have to subpoena you as a character witness for Eve, eh?
Absolutely!!
Yes, it is a real problem. It not only creates sin before the fall, but it creates a sin that neither Adam, Eve, God or any of the Biblical writers exposes. That is quite a conundrum.
I wonder if we could persuade Mark to enter back into the discussion and give us his explanation on the matter?
Quick question?
What is it you want me to do? Do i watch all 3 videos or one? If only one, which one are people discussing?
Thanks
Excellent additions gengwall!
Mark, so since you believe that women can teach men, then Eve could teach Adam, as long as they weren’t in church?
If women can teach men (Eve could teach Adam since they weren’t in church) then how could women not teaching in church be based on a creation ordinance or “role”?
Paul said “for Adam was created first..AND Adam was not deceived…” We can’t leave out any words, including a conjunction connective word.
So women should not teach because Adam was a traitor?
Senior pastor (the one that women are exempt from because the pastor teaches) is that a creation role too?
Hi, Cheryl. I’ve been following these video posts with interest and am astonished at how much comp teaching has in common with JW teaching. Really!
I’ve worked as an overseas missionary most of my life, and in the process learned several other languages. So I understand firsthand how important the grammar issues in video 4 are. In Spanish, for example, the masculine plural noun is used any time a mixed group is meant. A crowd of 99 women and 1 man would be addressed with masculine terms. So in church, unless they are talking about a women’s retreat, the nouns are always masculine. Greek works the same way. Masculine plural nouns, even ones like “brothers” and “sons” can also include “sisters” and “daughters.” “Anthropos” as you point out, means humans, and “pas” (all) and “tis” (anyone) are free of gender. Tis, for example, is the word Paul uses in 1 Tim 3 when he writes, “if anyone aspires to be an elder. . . ”
And, Cheryl, even “aner” can sometimes include women! In the video your text has it correctly–it usually means “man” but not always. Peter’s speech in Acts 2, for example, starts with the plural form of aner to address the crowd listening to him. According to three Greek dictionaries I have (Strong’s, Bauer’s and Freiberg’s) aner has as one of it’s meanings a generic idea of person or human.
These struggles with translation are part of what has fueled the recent TNIV controversy. Among many other changes, one of their purposes was to translate those masculine plurals into English in a way that communicates to English-speakers what the Greek means: males and females. And I don’t know if you’ve posted this already or not, but the TNIV is being discontinued. I’m recommending to all my friends that they get one now while they can.
On the CBE website complementarian Greek scholar Craig Blomberg has an excellent article which delves into the issues of translation and gender. Here’s the link: http://www.cbeinternational.org/?q=content/tniv-untold-story-good-translation. He holds to the complementarian position, yet favors an English translation that enables us to see what the Greek text means, just like you did in showing that the salvation verses apply to everyone, not just men.
Thanks, Cheryl, for sticking with this and pressing forward!
Oh and for those who really want to get into Bible study in a new generation of software that will blow your socks off, here is the link http://www.logos.com/4
Ok i have now watched video 2 and have a few thoughts/ comments.
- I’m not very familiar with the Jw’s or there theology, so i can only go off what is presented in these videos. I do not agree that Eve ‘sinned’ by talking to the snake. If this was true the fall would be insignificant and the bible wrong. I do not believe that, so i am not willing to accept that Eve sinned pre-fall.
- I would also not use the Levitical priesthood as ‘proof’ for my argument for the headship of Adam in the garden. The priesthood does show us something about Leadership and its requirements/who was aloud to do it etc, but i don’t think it supports the JW view either.
Cheryl, im assuming you are the Narrator? If so, i am also concerned at a few things you had to say apart from the accent 🙂
Your whole argument for this video around the priesthood if i can put simply was this ‘The Levitical Priesthood was the foundation and it was supposed to spread to everyone (women included) not just men’. If this is what you were saying i disagree.
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The ‘covenant’ nation Israel is not the same as the Levitical Preisthood. You attempted to argue your view from Exodus 19 where Israel is called a ‘kingdom of priests’, to show how women are essentially included into the priesthood- they are not. The covenant community was chosen as God’s people to be a nation of preists in the sense of projecting God’s glory to the world. This of course included men, women, children as it does now. ‘The Church’ i.e covenant community has the same role to fill. The metaphor for a nation of priests is symbolic of their role as Gods chosen people and i think you have confused it with the role of Levitical men wrongly.
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The Levitical Preisthood was established as God’s priests to fulfill the role of the Hebrew cultic system, i.e temple. This role could only be performed by men of the tribe of Levites. No women were aloud to perform this role, nor men from another tribe. The Levites were set aside by God for this role.
Therefore i am concerned how you confuse the two in an attempt to show that women were just as much ‘priests’ as the men. This is simply not the case. The role given to the Levitical priesthood should not be confused as the same role/idea as the kingdom of priests, or the ‘royal priesthood’ of the New Testament. We all have the role of being Christ’s representatives here on earth as did the Hebrews, but the role of priests belonged only to men in the OT. Likewise the positions of elder/pastor are only held by men in the NT and we should follow that. All it really did was show a poor biblical theology.
Thanks
What’s with the use of the word “power” to begin with? Why are you using this word regarding husbands and pastors? Husbands and pastors have power? Well, what kind of power do they have?
What KIND of power does a husband or pastor have that anyone of us here do not have?
What power did Adam have that Eve did not have?
;P
Sorry for the serial posts lol!
Mark,
Continuing on, you said:
- I would also not use the Levitical priesthood as ‘proof’ for my argument for the headship of Adam in the garden. The priesthood does show us something about Leadership and its requirements/who was aloud to do it etc, but i don’t think it supports the JW view either.
The priesthood was about offering sacrifices and it was designed for one family. It says nothing about leadership since there were no qualification of gender or family in the leadership of the Prophets or the Judges. These were chosen and given leadership by God Himself.
Cheryl, im assuming you are the Narrator? If so, i am also concerned at a few things you had to say apart from the accent 🙂
Well, my friend, I am always happy to deal with the concerns. Yes, I am the narrator. It was a talk that I gave to an ex-JW convention in 2006.
Your whole argument for this video around the priesthood if i can put simply was this ‘The Levitical Priesthood was the foundation and it was supposed to spread to everyone (women included) not just men’. If this is what you were saying i disagree.
What I was saying was what the Bible says about the nation of Israel. The Priesthood started out as the “Levitical” Priesthood. It was one tribe alone. But it was not meant to stay this way because God promised Israel that they would be a nation of priests just as God said that the body of Christ are all priests.
- The ‘covenant’ nation Israel is not the same as the Levitical Preisthood. You attempted to argue your view from Exodus 19 where Israel is called a ‘kingdom of priests’, to show how women are essentially included into the priesthood- they are not. The covenant community was chosen as God’s people to be a nation of preists in the sense of projecting God’s glory to the world. This of course included men, women, children as it does now. ‘The Church’ i.e covenant community has the same role to fill. The metaphor for a nation of priests is symbolic of their role as Gods chosen people and i think you have confused it with the role of Levitical men wrongly.
It is interesting that the family of Levites who are priests is literal but the nation as priests is a “metaphor”. It isn’t a “metaphor”. The fact that God says that if Israel would obey Him, that He would make the entire nation a kingdom of “priests” shows that God is not withholding service from some because of their family line or their gender. Mark, this is not dealing with the text in an honest way. You are just disregarding what God has said by calling it a “metaphor”. Where does God say that the priesthood of Israel is “symbolic”? Can you back up your claim that there are “real” priests and only “symbolic” priests? The onus is on you to prove that there is only symbolism.
Is the body of Christ “symbolic” priests or do we have a spiritual function as priests in the kingdom? Certainly we do not sacrifice animals on the altar but that is unnecessary since the one true sacrifice has been offered and the sacrifices have been abolished.
- The Levitical Preisthood was established as God’s priests to fulfill the role of the Hebrew cultic system, i.e temple. This role could only be performed by men of the tribe of Levites. No women were aloud to perform this role, nor men from another tribe. The Levites were set aside by God for this role.
That is correct. However in this was a temporal duty and there is a higher position coming. God said that the nation would be priests “to ME” and in the New Testament we are offering up our own bodies as a living and holy sacrifice and this is our spiritual service of worship. We are a kingdom of priests serving God in this temple (our body) to the service of the entire body of Christ.
Rom 12:1 Therefore I urge you, brethren, by the mercies of God, to present your bodies a living and holy sacrifice, acceptable to God, which is your spiritual service of worship.
This higher position, higher than the Levitical priesthood is available to all without restriction in the body of Christ. Israel has not yet come to the place where they are all priests to God since they are in disobedience until now. But one day they will also fulfill God’s mandate for them and they too will all be priests.
If God calls us real priests and offering up our body to him is a real duty of that priesthood, then who are we to say that our priesthood is only “symbolic” and that it is less than that of the Levitical priesthood? It is not less than the first priesthood. It is greater.
Therefore i am concerned how you confuse the two in an attempt to show that women were just as much ‘priests’ as the men. This is simply not the case. The role given to the Levitical priesthood should not be confused as the same role/idea as the kingdom of priests, or the ‘royal priesthood’ of the New Testament. We all have the role of being Christ’s representatives here on earth as did the Hebrews, but the role of priests belonged only to men in the OT. Likewise the positions of elder/pastor are only held by men in the NT and we should follow that. All it really did was show a poor biblical theology.
I am not saying that the Jewish women “were” priests. I said that if Israel obeyed God, he promised that all of them would be priests. They never got to that point so their women had not yet come into the priesthood of Israel. Although you say that the “role” of priests belonged to men alone in the Old Testament, I showed you from the scriptures where this was not the way that it was meant to stay. It was not meant to remain a closed position only with one tribe and only men. It was always meant to be open to the whole nation.
You see, the priesthood was a place of holiness where the priests had to keep themselves clean. No one could minister without be cleansed. The nation was not yet ready to be in that position, but God promised that one day they would be clean – all of them. This is a very precious promise and in the body of Christ we are all clean by the blood of Christ. All of us have been given the position of priests and as ones cleaned and ready for service, none of us are held back by the uncleanness of sin. So while God started out with only one tribe that was “clean” and fit for service, He would spread to the entire nation so that all are “clean” and fit for His service. To disregard this is to say that God’s promise of service for the entire nation has no real merit.
Think about it this way – if the priesthood was always and only for men alone then it would be improper for God to promise it to women in any shape or form. He would have to call their service something else because women then would not be able to be priests whether symbolic, actual or spiritual. It would be disallowed. You have to deal with this. Why were women said to be part of the priesthood? Why are you so willing to dismiss this very important chapter in favor of restricting God’s service to men alone? Is it possible that your own prejudice has kept you blind so that you cannot accept the high calling of women alongside their brothers?
Secondly the Bible never says that “pastors” and “elders” can “ONLY” be men. The Bible could have clearly said that if that was the case. But it does not. More about that later.
I believe the above should read “just as Adam was not called to speak for Eve”
The comments are extensive so i will reply the best i can…
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Obviously i believe that there is a ‘formal’ type gathering demonstrated in Pauls epistles, and many don’t. I have shown why i believe this but no one has given any evidence to conclude that 1 Cor 14 is not directed to a ‘formal’ type gathering. Likewise do any of you bother going to church on a sunday? IF you do, why do you bother, if Sunday ‘Church’ is the same as bible study and the like. Your own actions if you go to church, contradict your own view.
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Cheryl, i don’t see prophesying in Cor as the same as teaching. If that is what your bible exposition looks like in your church i would be very intrigued to visit one day. There are many different types of ‘prophecy’ outlined in scripture. We ought not bulk them together under the banner of ‘teaching’ or preaching. If you think we should, please show how scripture does this? Also i have repreated said that 1 Tim was written to Timothy not a church. If you can outline from 1 Timothy how is role is not a ‘pastor’ from what Paul is instructs him to do please also show?
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The term ‘Pastor’ is an office of the NT. IT derives from the idea of shephard/prebyter/overseer. It is not man made tradition. In fact im a bit sick of being referred to traditon all the time. It’s in the bible. Maybe we should question who is more influenced by society, the comp view or egal view? I’ll leave the answer up to you.
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Cheryl, again i totally disagree with your understanding of the priesthood. Exodus 19 is actually the only occurance where the 2 hebrew words form together ‘kingdom of priests’. The Levitical priesthood could only ever be done by men from the tribe of Levi-scripture teaches this. Calvin summarises Israels adn Christians role as ‘Prophet, Priest and King’. Symbolically we are a kingdom of priests- we represent God on this world. Priesthood imagery and symbolism is used all throughout scripture. If we are to always take it literary you contradict yourself. You used Exodus 19 as ‘proof’ but then said the Hebrew priesthood never came to fulfilment? Did God lie or fail with Israel in your view? If Romans 12 is literal why dont we literary sacrifice ourselves. Like it or not, the ‘priesthood’ is symbolism and should not be used as supposed evidence to support the view that women can be pastors/elders.
you said “Can you back up your claim that there are “real” priests and only “symbolic” priests? The onus is on you to prove that there is only symbolism.”
yes i can- scripture only ever had men from the tribe of Levi a ‘priests’ in the real sense. If you think women filled this role show me. THe rest of Israel was symbolised as kingdom of priests- all genders included. How else could God say that they were a kingdom of priests if it is not understood this way. It would make God a liar and untrustworthy. How do you reconcile this? Jesus came as the great and final sacrifice, and instituted the ‘kingdom of God’. Is this literal or metaphoric Cheryl? Peter saids in his first letter “But you are a chosen PEOPLE, a royal priesthood, a holy NATION, a people belonging to God, that you may DECLARE THE PRAISES OF HIM WHO CALLED YOU OUT OF DARKNESS INTO HIS WONDERFUL LIGHT”. If this is not metaphorical for our role as ‘priesthood’, how is it then literal. The fact is, you have entangled the literal Levitical Priesthood of the Hebrew cult with the with the metaphorical understanding of the people of God as a kingdom of Priests.
Again i would be very interersted to hear Daves view on this. I will be very surprised if he supports your view here Cheryl. Covenant theology is very well understood in Prebyterian circles, in Australia anyway. Also no body else has said anything about this issue. DO people support Cheryl’s view on this?
Just a quick side note. Acts 16 is not the establishment of the Phillipian Church, nor is it a ‘church’ gathering. Verse 13 tells us that they were looking for a place of Prayer. They met Lydia, evangelised to her and baptised her. This is evangelism/mission not a church gathering. We see elsewhere (Acts 8) with the Ethiopian Eunuch where baptism follows evangelism and witnessing. This is a very weak argument unless you want to conclude that Phillip and the Ethiopian where having a church service aswell?
The fact is Cor is addressing a formal church gathering. Please use relevant ‘proof’ texts to show otherwise.
Kay you asked “Why do you catagorize the preaching to or teaching of youth/children as less ‘formal’ or authoritative than other times believers gather to worship/learn the Word?”
My answer, because Paul does. Again 1 Cor 14 and 1 Tim are church gatherings. What you and others here are classifying as church are not what Paul is discussing. If you can disprove this please do? The fact is, both texts are in the context of believers gathering together in a ‘formal’ way, what is appropriate and what is not!
I believe the onus is up to all of you to show how the Levital Priesthood should be understood as literarily growing into a kingdom of Priests where men from other tribes and any women would have been aloud to perform the sacrificial system of Israel. Also it is up to all of you to show how Paul is NOT addressing a formal gathering in these 2 texts.
Just a note that the last segment to the talk on women on trial is now up. I pray that it will help many find freedom in their God-given gifts and also help men embrace their sisters in Christ without prejudice.
Only the 12 Apostles are the closest things we come to for “offices”.
Mark, you have mentioned 1 Corin 14 several times. Can you tell me which passages make you think of it as a ‘formal’ church situation?
The fact is Cor is addressing a formal church gathering. Please use relevant ‘proof’ texts to show otherwise.
If by saying that “formal” is the gathering of the believers together in worship and service, then we will not dispute that. However the fact is that women are prophesying in what you call a “formal” church gathering. That disproves your point that women are not allowed to teach men in the assembly. I would point you to my answer to Mike Seaver’s effort to try to prove that “prophesying” was not teaching or preaching and where I refute his arguments from the Greek. http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2009/09/02/mike-seaver-cheryl-schatz-10/ Also my evaluation of the entire debate with Mike Seaver listed here http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2009/09/19/evaluating-schatz-seaver-debate/ I just don’t have the time to rewrite everything that I already wrote during that debate. I know that you are a busy fellow, but if you do have time to evaluate my arguments, I would love for you to do so. And if you have any questions after going through the material, I would welcome questions.
Again 1 Cor 14 and 1 Tim are church gatherings. What you and others here are classifying as church are not what Paul is discussing. If you can disprove this please do? The fact is, both texts are in the context of believers gathering together in a ‘formal’ way, what is appropriate and what is not!
Mark, I think that the questions you have received on where instruction would be for “informal” meetings is a key question that has been asked of you. I haven’t yet read your latest answer so pardon me if I am behind a little. The fact is that any gathering of Christians to study the Word of God, give of their gifts to edify the body and to pray for one another is “church”. I don’t recall Paul or anyone else saying that the gatherings of the believers don’t qualify as Christians assemblies (or church) unless they have missing elements added.
Also it is up to all of you to show how Paul is NOT addressing a formal gathering in these 2 texts.
Since two or three Christians are guaranteed the Lord’s presence and since two or three may operate in edification, worship with prayer and bible reading and each person’s service in edification, the scriptures don’t limit “church” to large gatherings and neither should we. Place, amount of people, gender, social standing were not limitations of what qualifies as the gathering of the “church”.
I believe the onus is up to all of you to show how the Levital Priesthood should be understood as literarily growing into a kingdom of Priests where men from other tribes and any women would have been aloud to perform the sacrificial system of Israel.
If I believed that, then the onus would be on me. While I have stated that the whole nation would be a kingdom of priests, I never once said that I believed that they would all be killing lambs. I just go with what the scripture says in that they would all be “ministers of God”. I didn’t say that these ministers all had to be killing the lambs and offering a bloody sacrifice. The old priesthood is not the highest order of priests. That part of the priesthood was always meant to be abolished. Yet the priesthood continues in Christ without animal sacrifice and as priests we are all equal and they too, when they come into faith will be in the fulfillment of what God gave to them when they were not yet faithful.
By the way a pastor is a “gift” and an overseer is a mature Christian who desires the good work of oversight. Oversight is by qualification and pastor is by gift.
Just a few thoughts:
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The debate on what ‘prophesy’ means is a conumdrum for the comps which is why they try to give it different definitions even in the NC. They ignore that even the Puritans taught that it was preaching in the NC. Keep in mind that the early Christians had no NT scripture. Some had letters. They were using the OT.
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The Holy Priesthood is another conumdrum for comps who spend a lot of time trying to play it down and teach there is a chain of command structure within the Priesthood of the NC.
Nine years ago, Al Mohler tried to get The words ‘Priesthood of believer’ taken out of the Baptist Faith and Message. The best he could do was to get them to add an ‘s’ to it. Why the ‘s’? It is pretty sad. Here is an article about this debacle:
http://www.baptiststandard.com/2000/7_17/pages/bfm_meaning.html
This and much more is why I have a hard time trusting comp teachers. Especially the celebrity ones who make a very good living off of it. I have been around too much of this hermeneutic wrangling to take their teaching seriously.
If the Holy Priesthood in the New Covenant is ‘metaphorical’ then we are in big trouble. I agree with Cheryl that other side, the sin part, is certainly not metaphorical. Neither is the Holy Priesthood.
But the comps want to play it down because it hurts their authority/follower structure not just in marriage but in the “Church”.
I cannot be a priest in the Holy Priesthood and still have a human layer between me and Jesus Christ. That is why ‘head’ is ridiculous as being interpreted ‘authority over’. All humans are depraved sinners only saved by the exact same grace. There is no special class of ‘head’ designed to be the spiritual authority of another human. That is the beauty of the Priesthood. There are only new believers and more mature believers. A man conferred title does not make one a more mature believer. Only the gifting of the Holy Spirit confers giftings. Anyone can go to seminary and get a title.
Anyway, that dog won’t hunt so the Royal Priesthood is played down, twisted and deemed metaphorical. The problem is that the temple veil was torn in two on the cross to prove this distinction. They do not like it but I, a woman, am a priest in the Priesthood of believer. There is NO human layer between me and Jesus Christ.
This is not a position of authority over other humans but a living sacrifice to our precious Lord. It just makes me a lowly servant saved by grace serving the Lord.
“This CANNOT be assumed from scripture! This is also a timely reminder that we await your own evidence that “kephale” is linked to “authority”. ”
More interesting research from Suzanne on Kephale:
http://powerscourt.blogspot.com/2009/11/orphism-and.html?showComment=1257336817284
Dave, you are a hoot!
LOL Dave!
“You just can’t forbid women from teaching in a church building and then link it to creation.”
Woman was created to not teach in a church building.
Says who, where and why?
“So how did Eve know that she could teach Adam in the garden but certainly she couldn’t teach him in the “church” because that wasn’t allowed by creation?”
Wow, now that’s a question!! 🙂
“Now it is time to test all things by God’s word. What does it say?”
That women’s voices are filthy in church. 🙂
ROTFLOL
But wasn’t that exactly what the Talmud did say? (well, okay, not the bit about the church, but about the woman’s voice being filthy. . . . )
Ok now i am going to watch video 3
129 Mark,
You said:
Again you are playing semantic games with my words. If you have any legitimate claim to show that there is no difference between Pauls letters and Acts 16 for example please provide.
The difference between the assembly is that one is a Jewish assembly where the people needed the gospel preached to them and the other assembly of believers need the ministry of the body.
I don’t understand your attributing to me “semantic games”. However I do appreciate your challenge to prove that there was an assembly of (Jewish) believers in Acts 16.
Acts 16:13 (NASB) And on athe Sabbath day we went outside the gate to a riverside, where we were supposing that there would be a place of prayer; and we sat down and began speaking to the women who had assembled.
The fact is that the apostles had presuppositions. Their presupposition was that whenever there was no quota for a establish Jewish synogague, there would be a public meeting where the Jews would meet together for prayer and the reading of the Torah. This public meeting would be at a place outside of the city but also at a public place.
John MacArthur, who is a strong complementarian, records these observations in his MacArthur Study Bible:
16:13 to the riverside. Evidently, the Jewish community did not have the minimum of 10 Jewish men who were heads of households required to form a synagogue. In such cases, a place of prayer under the open sky and near a river or sea was adopted as a meeting place. Most likely this spot was located where the road leading out of the city crossed the Gangites River. women who met there. In further evidence of the small number of Jewish men, it was women who met to pray, read from the OT law, and discuss what they read.
Prayer, reading of the bible, and biblical discussion were considered a proper Jewish assembly although it was an unathorized synagogue since it was only women without 10 qualified men to establish a Synagogue. So it was a bonafide outdoor assembly of believers (Jewish ones who apparently feared God since they accepted the gospel).
Since the Jewish people were used to these kinds of assemblies and the Christians were mostly Jews in the beginning, it would have been logical for them to meet just as they did before for assemblies of believers with the women praying, reading the Word and giving their discussions on that Word. Paul also gave women the right to speak forth concerning the Word of God in these assemblies. He never forbid women to speak God’s Word.
Since you, yourself, have said that 1 Cor. 14 is a formal gathering of the church and since the women were allowed to speak forth the Word of God, what do you base your reasoning that women may not give a verse by verse explanation of God’s word in the assembly?
I agree with Dave that I have yet to see you actually get into the text and use it to give your reasoning. You see to want to remain with generalizations while we are digging into the text. Is there a reason for your hesitation? Is your conscience perhaps bothering you that if you discuss a particular text and listen to our (women’s) interpretation that you might be sinning?
“No, she misquoted God by introducing the words “and you must not touch it”.
Isn’t saying that God said something He did not say a lie?
Mark,
I still don’t understand your position, but i will watch the video.
Bless you!
When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it.
Now video 5,
Who exactly is the prosecution- JW or CBMW or both? That’s a side interest.
Now the first thing to note is in Acts 18 it is ‘they’ who explain to Apollos. I’m sure you don’t dispute that Cheryl but your video very much emphasised that it was Priscilla.
The second thing I want to comment on has to do with the CBMW quote you used. I can’t speak entirely for them but I’m not sure if you understood it properly. You entirely missed that the restriction is on the ‘ministry’ of the woman. They are not to teach a man doctrine or to exercise authority over a man IN A CHURCH. This is significant Cheryl; in fact it actually supports my view for understanding this passage. I felt you either missed this or dismissed this and focused on the ‘anytime, anyplace’ stuff without realising the context of their quote is in relation to the church. Now if I am correct in assuming they are looking at 1 Timothy in the church situation, then your whole argument against it with Priscilla falls to pieces, because you have mis-quoted from the beginning. But is this what CBMW were saying, am I quoting them right or is Cheryl quoting them right? From ‘Recovering Biblical Manhood and Womanhood’ pages 69-70
“When Paul says in 1 Timothy 2:12, “I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent,” we do not understand him to mean an absolute prohibition (what you call a law here Cheryl) of all teaching by women…Then, of course, there is Priscilla at Aquila’s side correcting Apollos…If Paul did not have every conceivable form of teaching and learning in mind, what did he mean? Along with the fact that the setting here is the church assembly for prayer and teaching (1 Timothy 2:8-10; 3:15), the best clue is the coupling of “teaching’ with “having authority over men.” We would say that the teaching inappropriate for a woman is the teaching of men in settings or ways that dishonour the calling of men to bear the primary responsibility for teaching and leadership. This primary responsibility is to be carried by the pastors or elders.”
So I really do think you mis-quoted them. Therefore your whole approach seems wrong. If you quote them wrong to begin with, your argument is hardly trustworthy nor persuasive. The whole approach to find a law in the Old Testament was not even relevant because they were not citing for such a law. So the question I pose it this Cheryl, Did you deliberately mis-quote them and pull small words out of the larger context or was it accidental?
Mark, Concerning your comments about Eve being told by Adam instead of God, why do you ignore what is said about this in Genesis 1?
She ate because she believed the serpent’s lies while Adam on the other hand did not believe the lies about the fruit that the serpent told.
Lin,
Regarding your post # 169, remember that what i am saying is that i think Cheryl mis-quoted the CBMW. IF you don’t agree with me show me how she didn’t. If she has mis-quoted them, then her argument has failed from the beginning.
You might think my view needs a Talmud, but all i am saying is this. Women should not teach in the gathered assemblies, it should be the resposiblilty of the pastor/elders who are to be men according to scripture. Seems pretty straight forward really.
About your comment #170, i have already said that i don’t think the prophecying here should be considered the same as teaching. In fact the bible separates them as different spiritual gifts, and no my church doesn’t perform like that. We don’t have people prophecying and speaking in toungues because no one is gifted that way, but still the Corinthians did, and Paul is describing orderly worship conduct for the assembly when gathered together.
Now about Genesis 1, i am not ignoring it. God did speak to both of them about what they could eat. Chapter 2 however reveals what they can’t eat. Chapter 2 is almost a zoomed in version of the creation account of humanity. We only have recorded that God spoke to Adam about what not to eat, so i’m following the bible here. It is most natural to assume Adam passed on the information to Eve. If Eve was given a ‘seperate’ command where is it recorded in the bible? Why is her command such a distortion from the one God gave to Adam? Anyone who supports Cheryl’s view here needs to reconcile these things.
Pinklight,
If you really believe what you are saying it is contradictory. Why, because what Eve saids, is not actually what God said to Adam-it is different. So we cannot claim an argument on the plural ‘you’ because the supposed 2 seperate commands given to Adam and Eve are actually different.
So if Eve is saying that God said these things to her about both of them, how can that be. This is not what God told Adam. So if you stick to this argument you are actually saying Eve lied by telling the serpent that God had said these things to Adam aswell, and thus she is sinful before the fall.
I think the greater weight of evidence lies in the ‘traditonal’ understanding of this scripture. The writer is subtly showing us how it was the Eve became deceived.
God said what Eve said he did to Adam as well yes, but when they were together (!) since Eve is using the plural “you”.
Mark,
You asked:
Now video 5,
Who exactly is the prosecution- JW or CBMW or both?
“Human tradition” is the real prosecution with the JW brand of tradition contributing all of the charges except the last one and with CBMW’s brand of tradition agreeing with the JW’s on some of the charges and adding the last charge of their own.
Now the first thing to note is in Acts 18 it is ‘they’ who explain to Apollos. I’m sure you don’t dispute that Cheryl but your video very much emphasised that it was Priscilla.
While most scholars believe that Priscilla was the main teacher of the two as Luke breaks tradition by listing her name first in Acts 18:26 where the corrective teaching is introduced, the fact that she is listed as a woman correcting and teaching a man is the key point that must be emphasized. If she knew the OT Scriptures forbid a woman from teaching a man (and no such law has been found in God’s law) she surely would not have taught Apollos. The fact that she was free to teach a man and correct his errors goes against CBMW’s rules that say that a woman cannot do things in a way that is teaching him. She has to be careful even in giving direction to a lost motorist in case she might be found teaching him.
The second thing I want to comment on has to do with the CBMW quote you used. I can’t speak entirely for them but I’m not sure if you understood it properly.
Well, I am glad that you realize that you can’t speak for them. I did have communication with them regarding the material that I put into my DVD set and they requested a review copy. They have never corrected me on the DVD or told me that I didn’t understand them properly. In fact in email communication they made it very clear that even in a home bible study a woman is not allowed to be the Bible teacher. She may comment at the study and she may even give her Bible views but she cannot be the Bible teacher.
I asked CBMW if a man can watch a woman teaching the bible on DVD and they said that he may watch her however he is not allowed to gather with his other male friends and watch a woman teaching on DVD because the would be seen as if she is their Bible teacher and this is forbidden by the Scriptures.
Since I have had direct communication with CBMW and have not been corrected on my understanding of their view, then perhaps it is you that misunderstands. CBMW restricts women far beyond being a pastor or elder. She may not be a Bible teacher to men even in her own home. Unless I misunderstood what you have written here on this blog, this would put CBMW and yourself at odds regarding women teaching Bible studies to men.
You entirely missed that the restriction is on the ‘ministry’ of the woman. They are not to teach a man doctrine or to exercise authority over a man IN A CHURCH. This is significant Cheryl; in fact it actually supports my view for understanding this passage.
Mark, what you fail to realize is that CBMW believes as we do that “church” is not necessarily in a building but wherever Christians gather together in Jesus name. We are the church. IT is not a building. They realize this so they forbid a woman from teaching other believers if they are male believers even if she is teaching them in her home and not in a church building. This is why they can easily say that a woman is not allowed to teach men in any place, at any time for any reason.
We would say that the teaching inappropriate for a woman is the teaching of men in settings or ways that dishonour the calling of men to bear the primary responsibility for teaching and leadership. This primary responsibility is to be carried by the pastors or elders.”
This is CBMW’s position. Women are not allowed to teach men in “settings” or “ways” that dishonor the calling of men to be the teachers and leaders. A “setting” of Bible study in a home is not allowed for a woman to teach men. She may facilitate the bible study by asking questions but she may not be the teaching of the study. If you think that your position that it is only in a “formal” setting in a church, then my friend, you are going to be very surprised. I recommend that you send them an email and ask them if a woman may teach the bible verse by verse to men in a bible study in her home. They will tell you that she is not allowed to be the bible teacher of a man even in her own home.
So I really do think you mis-quoted them. Therefore your whole approach seems wrong.
Mark, what are you going to do when you find out that I have not misquoted them and that they do forbid women from teaching the bible to men in a home setting? Are you going to do something about this or are you going to say nothing and let men restrict women’s teaching in ways that you do not believe the Bible restricts women? Are you willing to stand up and defend women bible teachers? Or are you going to be silent?
Mark,
To continue on with your comments:
And, finally, she minimizes her privileges by proclaiming “we may eat” of the fruit of the trees; God had said that they “may eat freely” from the trees (again a double verb appears for emphasis).”
Again Eve was quoting from what God told her and God surely has the ability to say things in a different way. In fact when He tells Adam and Eve additional things that they can eat, He doesn’t say “eat freely” at all. God says:
Gen 1:29 Then God said, “Behold, I have given you every plant yielding seed that is on the surface of all the earth, and every tree which has fruit yielding seed; it shall be food for you;
This is very different than how God gave His permission to Adam in chapter 2. There is no contradiction and to accuse Eve of being a false witness is a pretty serious thing. She was a witness of God and God never accused His witness so why should we?
She sees that the tree is “desirable”- the hebrew term used in the Ten Commandments of coveting
This is the deception that the woman was under. She was not “coveting” the fruit as if she was “coveting” something that was forbidden to her. She no longer believed that the fruit would cause her to die. Eve believed the lie that the fruit was good for her. She believed that it was permissible because it looked good. The test now was how it looked, not whether it had seeds or not. She was deceived.
Cheryl, do you really think that the hebrew grammar can actually support your view? The conversation between Eve and the serpent gives us a worldview into the situation. There are subtle hints of her early distortion of the word of God.
Yes, I believe that the Hebrew grammar supports my view because Eve speaks the truth before she is deceived into believing a lie. There is no proof of deception when Eve first speaks to the serpent. Mark, do you actually believe that Eve distorted God’s word and God failed to reprimand her for this distortion? Why do you think that God failed to prove her a liar?
Let me share with you something a great Anglican man shared with me over here. “If you come across a ‘new’ teaching you’ve either been revealed to something no-one else has ever seen or more likely the teaching is wrong”. Unfortunately i feel your teaching here falls in the later category.
Well, thanks for sharing that with me. The fact is, though, that the charges against Eve are what is “new”. Neither God nor Adam charged Eve with adding to God’s word. This is a “new” sin that is found in no version of the Bible. It is a faulty tradition that distorts God’s word and those who follow it have not thought through God’s requirements for the proof of sin. I feel that it is my obligation to speak the truth in love with those who have been deceived about false tradition. If I was the one who was in the wrong, I would sure like to be corrected. In fact I freely admitted that I was wrong in my understanding that Eve did not intimately know God’s name. In Genesis 4 it is clear from the text that she did know it. I, for one, am never ashamed to admit whenever there is evidence that I am wrong. After all, none of us is perfect. I believe that it is an honorable thing to admit to a misunderstanding when the Scriptures are there to correct us. I am wondering how willing complementarians are to admit their own misunderstanding?
Mark,
You said:
You might think my view needs a Talmud, but all i am saying is this. Women should not teach in the gathered assemblies, it should be the resposiblilty of the pastor/elders who are to be men according to scripture. Seems pretty straight forward really.
This view contradicts Paul’s view in 1 Cor. 14 where in the “gathered assemblies” he gives women freedom to prophesy so that all may learn
Also nowhere does the Scripture say that only men may teach the assembly or that only pastors may teach the assembly of believers. In the list of gifts, the gift of teacher is not given only to men and nowhere does the Scripture say that men are not to learn from female teachers. While teaching may not be prophesying, prophesying certainly includes teaching. If you checked out my response to Mike Seaver, you will see the lexical proof that prophesying encompasses both teaching and preaching.
Now about Genesis 1, i am not ignoring it. God did speak to both of them about what they could eat. Chapter 2 however reveals what they can’t eat.
Chapter 1 also reveals what they cannot eat. They cannot eat from any tree that has fruit that is not seed bearing. This is prohibited in the way that God spoke it by removing this kind of fruit from the permission list. No permission given = prohibition.
We only have recorded that God spoke to Adam about what not to eat, so i’m following the bible here.
Really? How do you explain Genesis 2:16?
Gen 2:16 The LORD God commanded the man, saying, “From any tree of the garden you may eat freely;
Gen 2:17 but …
You said:
It is most natural to assume Adam passed on the information to Eve.
How can it be “most natural” when Eve is quoted as telling us that “God said You shall not…” How is the plural term “you” a natural fit as coming from Adam?
. If Eve was given a ‘seperate’ command where is it recorded in the bible?
Genesis 3:2,3 It is her own testimony that is recorded in God’s inspired Word about God’s Word to both Adam and Eve.
Why is her command such a distortion from the one God gave to Adam?
It isn’t a distortion. It is additional information that never contradicts God’s original command given to Adam alone.
Anyone who supports Cheryl’s view here needs to reconcile these things.
I think that I have proven Eve’s correct witness. Now it is time for a challenge to you. Prove that God’s Words to Eve are not an addition but a contradiction to what was given to Adam. I think it is time to put your money where you mouth is. No disrespect meant, just a Canadian term for a request to prove your charge of sin.
If you really believe what you are saying it is contradictory. Why, because what Eve saids, is not actually what God said to Adam-it is different. So we cannot claim an argument on the plural ‘you’ because the supposed 2 seperate commands given to Adam and Eve are actually different.
“Different” is not a problem. Contradictory is. You have not proven that the words of God are contradictory. If “different” ways for God to say what is permissible for Adam to eat is not allowed, then please explain why God is not charged with being “different” i.e. contradictory in Genesis 1 where God adds the qualification that only fruit that has seeds may be eaten. Was he lying when he told Adam that he could eat the fruit from every tree in the garden except for one? Or is the different way of saying it the same thing i.e. only one tree had fruit without without seed therefore they were allowed to eat from every tree except for one?
It seems to me that you would have no problem with any of this if you did not have your stakes pinned on Eve misrepresenting God. Is there any other doctrines that you believe in that require Eve to misrepresent God and if you admit that Eve told the truth, then another doctrine would have to be discarded? I am very interested in understanding what causes you to hold to such an evil nature of the woman before sin entered the world. It seems to me that prejudice might not be the full reason if perhaps the “fall” of Eve before she ate the apple so ties into another doctrine that you cannot admit that you may be wrong. So I am asking if this belief of yours is tied into something else that I have not picked up on? What am I missing?
Dave,
I’m still not following with the commandments line? I’m not sure what you are trying to say in regards to Genesis.
Cheryl,
I appreciate your lengthy resposes and i also appreciate your willingness to be shown where you were wrong. I think you were a bit sneaky though now saying Eve was somehow like Mary after Jesus return being revealed something special- or being trusted or what ever you were trying to say there. Interestingly Noah also calls God Yahweh in 9:26
“Blessed be the LORD, the God of Shem…”
Let me explain a little how i understand this and the reference with Eve calling God LORD in Gen 4. If i’m reading you right, you are saying now after i have corrected you that God somehow also revealed his name to Eve before Moses. IF we take this line of reasoning we also find he revealed himself to Noah aswell. I don’t think God did that, let’s say i don’t read it that literary.
Think about this. When was the ‘torah’ written? Moses wrote it after God had revealed his name to Moses. Now you rightly pointed out earlier that God had never revealed his name before then, so what’s going on here? Did God lie? I don’t think so. I think Moses the author of these books is simply using the name Yahweh revealed to him and inserting it into the text that he is writing, so that we have references to Yahweh before Yahweh is even revealed. I think this makes much more logical sense. Moses is simply using the name he knows when under the inspiration of the spirit is writing Genesis, therefore he can rightly insert it into the text.
Now about Eve. I’m not charging her with sin before the fall. I believe the bible here that sin entered once they ate the fruit. So what am i to make of the verse in Proverbs that talks about adding to Gods words.
First of all we need to differentiate which words. Is it God’s actual spoken words? Is it his written words? Is it Jesus since he is called the word? If i understand the OT properly and perhaps i don’t, but all the OT writings, including Proverbs need to be understood within the covenantal framework. What is the covenantal framework? Obeying God’s commands and live- disobey and be exiled basically? Therefore i think that proverbs here is referencing the written word of God, the ‘torah’ as this is the covenantally revealed ‘word of God’. In fact we get the same warning at the end of Revelation.
But i guess the question is, is this plausible? You might say no, but i think it is. For example in Romans 2 Paul differentiates between those who are under the law (torah) and those who are not. Those under the law are judged according to the law, those not under the law are not judged according to the law because they didn’t have the law. They are still held accountable because they are sinners and hae God’s glory revealed in creation, but they are not judged according to the law.
Now if proverbs is to be understood covenantally, it is referencing the law (torah). This written law is God’s revelation and cannot be added to. But people prior to the law being given were not obligated to the law, how could they be. Therefore Adam and Eve are not under the obligation of torah and we should not read covenantal conditions into the genesis account. Hope this makes sense.
So i see Eve as being described by the writer of Genesis, giving subtle grammatical hints at what was about to happen. She did not add to the word of God in terms of the proverbs verse because that must be understood covenantally. She was deceived by the serpent and led into sin. I do not see this as though women are somehow more easily deceived or anything like that. Eve simply chose to listen to her own desire rather than God’s.
Let me make one last point. I DO NOT SEE THE CHURCH AS ONLY A BUILDING. Is that clear enough for everybody. And also Cheryl, how can i be a traditionalist and a liberal. BY definition liberals reject tradition????
I gotta go! 🙁
Mark,
I think you were a bit sneaky though now saying Eve was somehow like Mary after Jesus return being revealed something special- or being trusted or what ever you were trying to say there. Interestingly Noah also calls God Yahweh in 9:26
“Blessed be the LORD, the God of Shem…”
Mark, I don’t think that you realize that such words like “sneaky” actually come across as judging my motives. I am not going to take offense but I can’t promise what will happen if I wake up on the wrong side of the bed 😉
As far as the prophecy of the seed of the woman, there are some commentators who connect Genesis 4:1 with Genesis 3:15 as Eve’s belief that her child was the promised seed. I will only quote one reference here along with Luther:
The closing phrase of v. 1, “with the LORD,” implies that this was a statement of faith by Eve based on Gen. 3:15. This is the first use of the name YHWH by itself. The next time it appears alone is in worship by the line of Seth in 4:26.
Vol. 1A: How it All Began: Genesis 1-11. Study Guide Commentary Series
See also Luther’s rendering of Genesis 4:1 as Eve saying that she had given birth to “a man Jehovah”. This is what I was referring and believe me that I was not being “sneaky”.
It is interesting that God allowed some of his faithful ones to know Him by His name. Noah being one and Eve being another. Very interesting especially because of the promise through the woman.
Let me explain a little how i understand this and the reference with Eve calling God LORD in Gen 4. If i’m reading you right, you are saying now after i have corrected you that God somehow also revealed his name to Eve before Moses. IF we take this line of reasoning we also find he revealed himself to Noah aswell. I don’t think God did that, let’s say i don’t read it that literary.
I have no problem being corrected when I am wrong. I hadn’t actually done a study on this one, but we know that without a Bible and without God’s revealing of Himself, one cannot know Him and His name. I am sorry that you don’t take the Bible as literally as I do. At least you cannot call me a liberal because of the high view of Scripture that I hold to.
Think about this. When was the ‘torah’ written? Moses wrote it after God had revealed his name to Moses. Now you rightly pointed out earlier that God had never revealed his name before then, so what’s going on here?
He had not revealed Himself by this name to Abraham, Isaac, etc but since we must allow Scripture to correct us, He did reveal Himself to Eve and Noah by His name.
I think Moses the author of these books is simply using the name Yahweh revealed to him and inserting it into the text that he is writing, so that we have references to Yahweh before Yahweh is even revealed.
Nah. That would be wrong to add it into a direct quote of Eve’s. If you can have a man noodle with quotes then what else has been noodled with by Moses. Nope, I don’t buy it.
I think this makes much more logical sense. Moses is simply using the name he knows when under the inspiration of the spirit is writing Genesis, therefore he can rightly insert it into the text.
Now you are claiming that the Holy Spirit put words into Eve’s mouth that she didn’t say? That the Holy Spirit is guilty of noodling with the text? No way. I don’t buy it. Honestly these are the kind of answers that I would expect to be credited to “liberal egalitarians”. Are you sure that you actually think that it is okay to noodle with the quotes and then blame God? Or are you just trying to pull my leg to see if I would agree with you and end up more liberal than I claim? I don’t hold to that kind of Scriptural addition. It is God’s Word. He said that we are not to add to His Word or take away from it. It is a very serious sin.
Now about Eve. I’m not charging her with sin before the fall. I believe the bible here that sin entered once they ate the fruit. So what am i to make of the verse in Proverbs that talks about adding to Gods words.
First of all we need to differentiate which words. Is it God’s actual spoken words? Is it his written words?
The Bible is God’s Word. The book of Revelation takes God’s prohibition and makes it apply to the entire book Rev. 22:18. It wasn’t just the quotes from God Himself but the entire book, which of course is God’s word.
What is the covenantal framework? Obeying God’s commands and live- disobey and be exiled basically? Therefore i think that proverbs here is referencing the written word of God, the ‘torah’ as this is the covenantally revealed ‘word of God’.
Are you seriously trying to say that it is perfectly okay to add to the words of the LORD God if He speaks to you, but not okay if someone writes His Word down??? You are kidding, right? Sounds like the hiss, “Did God actually say that you can’t add to His spoken word or did He really say that it is only His written word that you can’t add to?”
As far as getting into the covenantal theology, let’s leave that aside for this blog. It is outside the scope of this subject and I highly doubt that those theologians who believe in this brand of theology would be willing to sign on the dotted line to agree with you that men can add to God’s spoken words without God’s judgment. It comes across that God didn’t really care much for His spoken words just the ones that got written down. But when we see the 10 commandments given to Moses, we find that God spoke them and wrote them down showing that His speaking and His writing and equal. God’s Word is His Word.
So i see Eve as being described by the writer of Genesis, giving subtle grammatical hints at what was about to happen. She did not add to the word of God in terms of the proverbs verse because that must be understood covenantally.
That is the most creative disregard for God’s command in Proverbs that I have ever seen. Go ahead and tell this to God in the judgment. I am not planning to stand next to you in case you get a lightning bolt.
She was deceived by the serpent and led into sin. I do not see this as though women are somehow more easily deceived or anything like that. Eve simply chose to listen to her own desire rather than God’s.
Whew, at last some things that I can agree with! Thanks, Mark!!
Eve was indeed deceived by the serpent and in her deception she fell into sin. I am so glad that you don’t see women as more easily deceived because of the serpent lied to Eve.
However I don’t agree with this:
Eve simply chose to listen to her own desire rather than God’s.
Eve didn’t “listen” to her desire, she listened to the lie. This is the power of deception – it causes you to act in unbelief. Eve no longer believed God’s word and the lie now became the truth to her. It was not the lie or just her desire that made her eat. It was “the truth” that she now embraced. Funny how many cults call their religion “the truth”. It is the old satanic lie once again that takes deception and dresses it up as the truth to be held to and embraced.
Let me make one last point. I DO NOT SEE THE CHURCH AS ONLY A BUILDING. Is that clear enough for everybody.
Then what has a building got to do with the prohibition? Is your statement that the church is not “only a building” mean that the church is a building plus the people? Or is the church nothing to do with a building at all? Could you please clarify where a church building stands?
And also Cheryl, how can i be a traditionalist and a liberal. BY definition liberals reject tradition????
By definition liberals take texts that have no relation to symbolism and have no interpretation in the Scripture as symbolism and they wipe away the inspired Words of God. No longer is history historical and no longer are quotes, real quotes. They can be massaged and added to until they can are something other than God intended. The interpretation then is not God’s revelation but man’s guess what God was really getting at. Sort of inspired guesses which really lift up the Sovereignty of God (or not). Note, that was Canadian late night sarcasm. Hope you don’t mind. 🙂
Also, im not familiar with ‘noodle’ but i think i get the gist of what your saying…good one cobba 🙂
Mark,
Cheryl, i agree 100% with the following…
“I believe that one must first be able to exegete the passage first and show in the context the meaning that you put on the word or sentence or verse.”
I am thankful today for two things…one that you called me a “cobba” (friend) and not a “drongo” or a “mug” 🙂 (I found a place online that helps out with understanding Aussie slang. http://www.australiatravelsearch.com.au/trc/slang.html) I am also thrilled that God has been gracious in allowing me to read that you agreed with me 100% on one statement that I made. Oh, boy, it was like walking through a field of mud to get some agreement. But I am grateful for what I can get even if it is only one statement that we can completely agree on. Thanks!
BUt i would also add for myself, the specific culture of the writer. The time when the document was written. The other cultural backdrops- for example with Moses, what is similar/dissimilar with other Ancient Near Eastern sources. All these types of things also help us determine the purpose for writing, the intended audience etc.
We cannot forget that God is the original author of Genesis and Moses merely the scribe. After all no human was there during the time of creation with the exception of Adam for a brief time after his creation and before he named the animals in Genesis 2. Moses could not know any of that without God’s direct revelation and God’s purpose was always that Genesis would be a record not just for the people of Moses’ time but an accurate account that will span all generations documenting the Sovereignty of God in creation and in His dealing with mankind from perfection to the fall and beyond. So when I read Genesis I remember that God wrote it also with our generation in view so that the writing was always meant to be timeless. Only our wonderful, amazing God is capable of that! No mere human could write in such a way that his writings could be understood throughout human history as the clear revelation of God to all generations. I do not believe that God was without knowledge of our time, our culture and our science when He inspired Genesis. So when I read Genesis, I see it as God’s revelation to me and I dig into it to understand the questions that people have today, knowing that God understood all that we needed to know and he left no important question unanswered in His Word. That doesn’t mean that I know all the answers, just that I truly believe in God’s ability to provide the answers ahead of time. If I have faith that the answer is there, I try hard to find it, and God has not failed me yet.
Let me give a quick example- it is interesting to see other ANE ‘creation’ accounts and compare them to the Hebrew account. It helps to show the backdrop of the culture and why certain things are said/emphasised which might otherwise be missed or mis-understood by alone looking at the passage.
While I agree that looking at the culture is highly important, Genesis is unique in that it was not written by a mere human. Neither was Genesis written by One who lacked information or who meant it to be understood by only one generation. Genesis is truly in a class of its own.
In terms of context and theology, covenant theology is the context of the OT writings. They are writing as God’s chosen people in a covenant with Him It is all about instruction about how to live properly in that covenant. That is why i see it as so important.
I also see covenants as extremely important in the Old Testament. I took a course in covenants from Kay Arthur and I will never sign a “covenant” again without understanding the importance that God places on our word. I was able to show our church pastor and deacons from that OT covenant material why I could not in all good conscience sign a covenant as it was written. As a result of the information I provided on covenants, the church board agreed to make needed adjustments.
I’m glad we agree on the inerrancy of the word. I’m glad you also see that to read the ‘red letters’ as literally Jesus exact words is not necessary.
I am not sure that you understand me yet. I believe that God inspired each word and each piece of grammar. I believe that each word is put there for a reason and because I pay attention and do not disregard any part of what is inspired, I have been able to see some things that others miss. Jesus said that it would be the work of the Holy Spirit to bring all things to “remembrance” that Jesus said to the apostles.
John 14:26 “But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said to you.
Remembrance means to bring back to one’s mind. I have complete faith that what the Holy Spirit did was bring back to their mind the words of Jesus. It was not necessary for the Holy Spirit to change what Jesus said, because Jesus’ words were perfect and didn’t need revision. While I can understand those who do not share my faith in the Holy Spirit’s ability to bring accurate remembrance to their minds, I just take this at face value and believe it. While every word that Jesus spoke is not recorded in the Bible, what is recorded is accurate as it was superintended by the Holy Spirit. I do not believe that a mere man’s ability to recall would be accurate, however I believe that scripture does not originate from the will of man and I accept that the Holy Spirit’s power and His work is just as supernatural as the works of Jesus.
Thus you can see why i don’t necessarily have to see Eve’s words as the ‘exact’ words that she spoke. Both Moses and the gospel writers are recording history after the events.
I hope that you can now understand why I do believe that they are “exact” words. In Genesis no one can tell us for sure exactly what Eve said but God Himself. Was He accurate? I believe He was. And because the Holy Spirit’s work was needed in the New Testament with Jesus’ words, I believe that these words are also accurate. If the words are not accurate, then it is easy to dismiss God’s account as subject to man’s interpretation. But I believe strongly in the Sovereignty of God so I don’t feel any need to figure out what God could have said if He had known our questions. God is all-knowing and He is accurate. I have no fear in believing that every word is inspired accurately. The inspiration for those recorded words come from the God that I have grown to trust. I have not yet found any reason to doubt Him and it has always been my intention to teach others to trust God too.
It is still under the inspiration of the Spirit and the word is still authoritative and inerrant. God inspired these words that are recorded to be His revealed word, and i hope you can see that i am no means a liberal for seeing it this way- i have a very strong view of scripture.
I am not sure how you see God’s Word as accurate yet with a record of the conversation provided by the Holy Spirit as open to correction and reinterpretation. I know that some do not agree with me because taking the Word at face value may conflict with some of their doctrines and that is too high a price to pay. I just don’t care about my own faulty presuppositions. If the accurate, authoritative and inerrant Word of God conflicts with my understanding, then it is my understanding that must give way, not God’s Word. I call this being a “truth lover”. I also define this as a way to show that I fear God. I will bend and conform my own understanding and bow my knees before God and allow my misunderstanding to be shaped and corrected by His Word. I will never purposely bend His Word to fit my understanding. This is why I try hard to keep objective and not allow myself to be easily hurt, but it is also why any charge of deception can be offensive to me.
In my very first days as a fully committed Christian, God told me to confess my sin of hypocrisy in front of the entire church and in fear and trembling I obeyed. That early example of laying aside my own ego makes it far easier today to admit when I am wrong. To me there is no shame in freely admitting my error. There would only be shame in failing to humble myself and failing to admit that I was wrong when I see it.
Now in relation to your videos. I appreciated them very much. I found them very helpful in understanding your position on certain things.
I thank you for your kind words. I also praise God for helping me to present ideas in a way that people can understand the concept even if they don’t agree with me. God is so good!
Actually the last video i probably found the most helpful for me- running through the various ‘two witnesses’ stuff- i haven’t looked into that much so thanks for that one.
I appreciated hearing this. My years of work with the Jehovah’s Witnesses has helped me to understand why God’s confirmation and constant repetition is so important. Two or three witnesses is for our safety, not for God’s need to repeat Himself. In fact after that talk a man came up to me and reminded me that even with the ten commandments, God had repeated Himself giving one the commandments in verbal form, then one stone witness and then the second stone witness. Then the commandments are repeated throughout Scripture and this shows that God cares enough about us to make sure that we understand what sin is so that we can avoid it. It is God’s grace to us.
So i guess you want my jury verdict? Is Eve guilty of sinning before the fall- my answer is definately not.
You are a wise jury member who took into consideration all the facts. Thank you for your vote of confidence for Eve and for exonerating her of any unestablished sin.
Does your interpretation of Gen convince me- no it doesn’t. Does your interpretation of th priesthood amd 1 Tim convince, again no it doesn’t. But i still enjoyed listening to them.
My purpose is to show that there is a well thought out stand for allowing women to teach the Bible to the body of Christ. On the other side, I wanted to show that the view that sees women as being in sin for teaching correct biblical doctrine to men has major contradictions and holes in this view when compared to the straight edge of Scripture. Lastly I wanted people to be able to reason through this issue and use it as a springboard to check out what they may not have considered before. There are enough divisions in the body of Christ today and if I can be a help for brothers and sisters in Christ to come together in love instead of restricting the Holy Spirit when He is using a female vessel and thus accusing women of sin by their obedience to God, then I will feel satisfied that I have accomplished what I set forth to do. Test all things. Hold fast to what is true.
A quick side note- i like the way you Canadians say ‘about’. I noticed you say it the same as Don Carson-is he Canadian aswell?
I see that Dave has answered this question for me. Actually I had no idea that Don Carson is Canadian. It looks like he lives in the US now, but Dave is right, he was born and raised in Canada.
Dave,
My new little trusty guide to Australian slang helps me to know that Bonza means excellent.
Here’s one for you.
Warmly from your “Bluey” sister in Christ,
Cheryl 🙂
I went out and raked leaves this weekend and am now hopelessly behind. *sigh*
Cheryl,
221 🙂 Of course, otherwise how could we ever really be certain of anything in God’s Word.
Kay,
I see that you are paying attention. You picked up on that great comment about the cultural influence!
Lol – I have a 1/3 acre lot with 23 trees on it…and the snow won’t hold off forever. Sorry I shirked on my obligations here :O
gengwall,
In that case you are excused. Fruit trees? With seeds?
“Fruit trees? With seeds?”
I’m tempted to say apple trees but that got me in trouble last week. No, no fruit trees. Just very leafy trees.
gengwall,
LOL!
OK let me say a few things…
Cheryl,
I very much appreciate your trust in the Spirit, but we must alsways keep in mind the auhtor’s intent/purpose/culture of their writings. What i find amazing aswell is that Moses wrote Genesis for the Hebrews, yet it is now for us also. God uses humans to fulfill his Will and that included writing the word.
Now let me probe you a bit further. You have not answered my question whether you see the gospel writers as writing Jesus’ exact words. And im sure you realise if you say yes to this, then the question arises…so why are the recordings so different even of the same accounts. Who is more trustworthy, Luke or Matthew? You see the problem? They are not identical so which one is TRULY Jesus words. I too agree that the spirit helped them remember, but i also relaise that the nitended audience of Matthew is not the intended audience of Mark. THe emphasis of MAtthew is not the same emphasis as Mark. We need to understand all this to get a better grasp on the writings. ALthough the wording and strucutres are different, there is no contradiction in them, they are simply writing as different human men to different human audiences. For example Luke is writing to Theophilus so he can be certain of the things he knows about Jesus. Matthew has a Jewish audience in mind and that is why his book is filled with OT prophecies. Do you understand what i am trying to say? Does not this also help to understand the context? And i know with your view on 1 Cor 14 you heavily rely on the outer Jewish context, so why are you ignoring it with Moses?
Also why is Moses calling God YAHWEH all through Genesis? Do you still believe that God lied to Moses about revealing his name? How could he reveal it to Eve, then to Moses then to Abraham (Gen 14:22) and Sarah (Gen 16:2)even Abraham’s slave (Gen 24:12) and Issac (26:22) in Jacobs vision God even calls himself LORD to Jacob (Gen28:13) and Rachel (Gen 30:24) and Labab (Gen 30:27) again Jacob (Gen 30:30)and on i could go… are you beginning to see the problem i have wiht your view? Did God or didn’t God reveal his name to moses? Is Exodus 6:3 true or not?
Kay,
Let me answer briefly about 1 TIm and 1 Cor 11. As with any exegesis we need to be able to see what principles are binding and what are cultural- this is always going to be difficult. But think about this, in both these passages what is Pauls reasoning? In both he uses Genesis to show why he wants thinks done in that cultural time. So then we can see that Paul uses Genesis to show why are a woman should not teach and not be in authority. We are then able to say that no these things are not just culturally binding like a head covering is. He is using scripture for his argument.
If Paul is only concerned with a cultural issue, why is he using the Creation account for his argument?
Mark,
You said:
They are not identical so which one is TRULY Jesus words. I too agree that the spirit helped them remember, but i also relaise that the nitended audience of Matthew is not the intended audience of Mark. THe emphasis of MAtthew is not the same emphasis as Mark.
You said it quite well. The Holy Spirit brought Jesus’ words to their remembrance. It was His own words with no additions at all. Fully accurate. Yet each one brought out what was necessary for their own intended audience by the Holy Spirit’s inspiration. This means that there is no contradiction at all in the accounts. They are all fully inspired and they are all accurate. It is the same as the accounts of the miracles of Jesus. Were there two demoniacs or only one when Jesus crossed over into the country of the Gadarenes? Matthew says there were two (Matt 8:28) while Mark and Luke only mention one. Which accounts are inaccurate and thus uninspired? None of them. They are all fully accurate and fully inspired. Mark and Luke do not say that only one demoniac was there. However there focus was not on the one who is not recorded as getting healed but on the one who was healed and sent back to his people as a testimony.
If we take the view that the words are not necessarily accurate, then we are left to our own interpretation and our own decision to know what to keep and what to throw out. We become the test for truth instead of believing that God’s testimony will never be inaccurate. Just because we don’t understand something doesn’t mean that the Word is wrong. It is rather our own understanding that is wrong.
Yesterday I talked to someone who believes that Jesus suffering didn’t end at the cross that Jesus had to be tortured for three days and three nights before “it is finished”. They have accept a world view that teaches them that all the English words translated “hell” mean a place of punishment instead of understanding that the Greek has several words with different meanings. The words “It is finished” then can be changed to this part is finished and there is another three days of torture in addition to the several hours of torture that He already endured. If the Word cannot be trusted to correct them, then we are all left to our interpretations.
Bottom line, I believe that the words are completely accurate without additions that would add to what Jesus said. They are completely accurate and completely inspired because the Holy Spirit does a perfect job. If you believe that Jesus’ words that were recorded are not accurate and that the Holy Spirit inspired the disciples to add words that Jesus never said, then I guess we have a different view of inspiration.
I need to go do some stuff, so ill be back later. I hope Cheryl you can answer some of my questions by then. I look forward to your explanations
Cheryl first of all look at my post #241 and then im sure you will see relevant bible passage that show that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob all call God LORD, not to mention all the other people, the slave, Laban etc. Once you look at this then we can talk more otherwise we will never get anywhere.
I really do appreciate you Cheryl, you are chalenging. I am sorry for questioning your motives, please forgive me. I am passionate about the word of God and im sure you know its hard not to lose control sometimes.
Please do consider the problems with some of your views regarding Genesis. In terms of my Exegesis of 1 Corinthians 11 perhaps you post my paper first, so people can see that superiority over was is a possible translation for kephale. Once peole can admit to that then perhaps we can get somewhere in relation to how it fits the context. If people are never willing to accept that it was a possible translation then how can i expect people to give my exegesis a fair hearing?
Sorry, I should have said that Kay’s conclusions agree with Prof Grudem’s research, but not with Prof Grudem’s conclusions.
😉
Mark,
I missed your Bible references on your post. Sorry. I have been copying and pasting sections for comment and for some reason I must have been interrupted and didn’t finish reading that one post. I apologize for my misstep. There has been a lot of reading and a lot that could be missed.
So let’s see. There does appear to be a contradiction. But since I know for sure that God does not lie and I also know that God does not contradict Himself, let’s have a look at the Hebrew to see what is going on.
A further complication occurs because Exodus 6:3 notes that God says, “I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by my name the LORD I did not make myself known to them.” The resolution to this apparent contradiction to some 150 uses of the name Yahweh during the patriarchal period is to be found in a technical point of Hebrew grammar, know as beth essentiae, in the phrase “by my name.” This phrase meant that while Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob heard and used the name Yahweh, it was only in Moses’ day that the realization of the character, nature and essence of what that name meant became clear. “By the name” is better translated “in the character [or nature] of Yahweh [was I not known].”
From Hard Sayings of the Bible by Walter C. Kaiser Jr. Peter H. Davids, FF Bruce, Manfred T. Brauch pg 88
So here is an “apparent” contradiction that I had not encountered before and the specific Hebrew grammar that I had not researched before but others have shown the inspired grammar that fixes the problem.
I really do appreciate you Cheryl, you are chalenging. I am sorry for questioning your motives, please forgive me. I am passionate about the word of God and im sure you know its hard not to lose control sometimes.
Mark, I forgive you. I will not let it taint the way I accept you as a dear brother in Christ. I understand that this issue (and myself) can be challenging. That’s okay. Challenges stretch us and grow us and make us more like Christ.
What I have learned to do and I hope that I succeed more than I fail, is to strive to give my patience to others, and to remove myself from the emotional connection. This entire issue has caused me great pain in the past. I lost dear friends because they treated me very badly and walked out of my life over the issue of whether a woman can teach the Bible to men. The issue was about Bible studies in the home teaching verse by verse not an issue of being a pastor in a formal church building. I was judged by those who should have loved me. But with the help of the indwelling Holy Spirit, I chose to take the harm that had been done to me and turn it into a work of love for God. It took me quite awhile to get healing and not to feel great pain when dealing with this issue.
I chose to research the hard passages of Scripture verse by verse and present the Biblical evidence without striking out at the complementarian camp who greatly hurt me. If I were to stay in my emotions because of the way I had been treated I would feel worthless and useless because I was born female and to many complementarians that is a place of restriction, a place of silence (meaning my spiritual thoughts are not worth hearing when a man is present) and a life of shame supposedly passed on to me through the deception of Eve.
But God doesn’t see me that way and His love has brought me great healing. He has given me strength to be kind to those who I believe have been deceived. I don’t want to treat them like the enemy. Our enemy is satan not our brothers in Christ. I believe that God specializes in using the weak to confound the wise. The worth of a woman, even if she is worth far less than a man in the eyes of the world and far less in the eyes of some in the Church, is a tremendous gift to the Church when she walks in the power and gifts of the Holy Spirit.
Please do consider the problems with some of your views regarding Genesis. In terms of my Exegesis of 1 Corinthians 11 perhaps you post my paper first, so people can see that superiority over was is a possible translation for kephale.
No problem with Genesis at all. I just learned something new myself. Learning about the Hebrew and Greek grammar has been invaluable to me in my research and this issue is just one more example that the exact grammar in the Hebrew can remove all charges of a contradiction.
As far as your exegesis, putting your “proof” of the word usage along with your exegesis is the powerful way to prove your point. That is how I did not DVD set and since the lexicons differ on this word, the deciding factor will be the “fit” in the passage. I am asking you to please work on that and send it to me. I think that it will work for a new topic here and be lots to talk about.
I will probably not be on line much tonight as I have lots to do and have spent more time on my blog that I should have. Yes, Mark, passion is part of my character too.
sorry that last post was directed at Lin, sorry Kay
Mark,
Have you now changed your view from saying they couldn’t speak His name to now they could, but the full revelation of what that meant didn’t come until Exodus 3? If so, i am glad that you are now accepting one conservative approach to reconciling this problem.
I changed my view as soon as I saw Eve proclaim God’s name. I didn’t think that she knew God’s name, but I cannot argue against the Scripture. I had not paid attention to that before. I accept the Bible as written and I do not believe that God’s name has been added to Eve’s quote by Moses. That would be an unethical quote.
I also accept that the Hebrew grammar makes a distinction between knowing God’s name and knowing His full character that He revealed with Moses.
Are you now saying that you accept that Eve spoke God’s name in chapter 4 and that there was no malice by using the term “God” when she spoke to the serpent just as there was no malice by Moses when he wrote chapter 1? I would sure like you to admit when you change your mind too. Or are you still holding on to your believe that Eve was Eve (and apparently Moses) was siding with satan when she used the term God? It is a view that liberals hold who have blasted me for my trust in the Scriptures as they are written.
My basic opinion is always that the Bible is right in its original autograph. I do not believe that it has been tainted nor that someone later added to God’s Word. I struggle with understanding those who believe that God’s Word can be added to. It doesn’t make sense to me.
The problem i have is with people who deny it couldn’t be understood as superiority over. From the research i have done, both are legitimate translations for ‘kephale’, and so ultimately the context is the deciding factor.
Mark, if I didn’t know better I would think that you were me writing from Australia. It is ultimately the context that is the deciding factor. Although the term “source” is used for often than anything else, there can be other meanings. That is why I said that the exegesis of the passage is of utmost importance and that a word study alone without the context will not be sufficient to determine the correct meaning.
I think that Suzanne does great work on the issue of “source” and “kephale” http://powerscourt.blogspot.com/
It is Andreas Kostenberger who teaches that women will be saved from deception if they continue in their roles as wives and mothers. See here http://www.biblicalfoundations.org/bible/will-women-be-saved-by-childbearing and on this page there is a link to the CBMW article.
Andreas is a nice guy. I liked him a lot. But his theology in this area is faulty. He had no answers to the questions I gave him regarding the holes in his argument. Saved from deception into safety in Christ by remaining in one’s roles has some serious theological issues and Andreas admitted to me that his view does not have full acceptance in CBMW. Problem is that they publish it as if it is a valid Biblical view. My DVD goes through Andreas’ view on 1 Timothy 2:15
I recently purchased a booklet written by a woman defending women’s freedom to minister the Word of God. It was written in 1666. Hardly a view influenced by “feminism” in 1666. It is a common tactic that CBMW uses and seems to dissuade people from looking at all the women ministers hundreds of years ago. No one wants to pay attention to that because they want to say it is a recent trend. That isn’t true.
Now back to work for me.
Cheryl,
“I also accept that the Hebrew grammar makes a distinction between knowing God’s name and knowing His full character that He revealed with Moses.”
This is a massive debate which we have barely touched on, so i hope you can appreciate why i had to probe your view since it was producing a contradiction in the word. But it is good to see you be corrected and accept the word.
“I would sure like you to admit when you change your mind too”
Actually i haven’t changed my mind. Earlier i mentioned that you have now gone with 1 conservative approach to reconciling the problem with Exodus 6:3. The other conservative view is somewhat basically what i am putting forward. But again the research here is extensive and i am by no means an expert on it, but i’m sure if you looked into the 2 conservative views that reconcile this problem you will see that i am not a ‘liberal’. The reason i side with my view, is because if we probe your ‘new’ view we have further complications with the gospels. For example, did Jesus perform the same miracles 4 times over, did he say the same parables 4 times over etc etc. I’ll leave this here and hopefully if you choose to look into this further you might see why it is inaccurate to label me a liberal.
” I do not believe that it has been tainted nor that someone later added to God’s Word.”
Not totally sure what you mean by this? Do you think this is what i believe? Can you explain for me how you understand the later redactions on certain texts. For example it is almost universally recognised that Moses wrote the Pentateuch, yet it records his own death. If another writer redacted this at a later date does that make it less ‘inspired’ in your opinion? Or is it some sort of prophecy on Moses behalf about his own death? Can it be redacted but still be preserved to be God’s words? I’d love to know your opinion here so i can better know where you come from when reading scripture…sorry i know its abit off topic.
“Although the term “source” is used for often than anything else, there can be other meanings.”
I’m glad you have said this, it makes it much easier to progress in the arguments.
“It is Andreas Kostenberger who teaches that women will be saved from deception if they continue in their roles as wives and mothers.”
So he is NOT saying it is her works that gives her salvation? Was Lin wrong in what she said about works salvation? His view is that it will just stop her from being deceived right and has nothing to do with her salvation?
“I recently purchased a booklet written by a woman defending women’s freedom to minister the Word of God. It was written in 1666. Hardly a view influenced by “feminism” in 1666. It is a common tactic that CBMW uses and seems to dissuade people from looking at all the women ministers hundreds of years ago. No one wants to pay attention to that because they want to say it is a recent trend. That isn’t true.”
Note what i actually said. I didn’t say people haven’t rejected male leadership until feminism, i said people using ‘source’ as a definition combined with rejecting male leadership is new. I got that from David Garland’s Exegetical Commentary on 1 Corinthians. He might be wrong, i dunno??? Maybe you can point out to me Cheryl, someone before the rise of feminism who used ‘source’ as the basis of the rejection of male leadership. His evidence shows that even scholars who saw kephale as source, still did not reject male headship.
Dave,
“This does not allow for context, it clearly indicates that you simply think kephale means authority…case closed. In light of this statement I defended Kay by saying that even Prof Grudem had found evidence to show kephale can mean things other than authority.”
My comment was in reaction to people rejecting that kephale can have an authority overtone, not that it is absolute, hence why i said context is the determining factor. Since you have not agreed that it can have an authoritative overtone, can i assume you don’t believe it can?
Also it might surprise you but i have had very little to do with CBMW, in fact ive probably only visited their site a handful of times.
Good night all
This is exhausting. I can’t keep up. Round and round we go….
Mark,
This is a massive debate which we have barely touched on, so i hope you can appreciate why i had to probe your view since it was producing a contradiction in the word. But it is good to see you be corrected and accept the word.
Like I said, I was corrected before I looked up the “contradiction” in the resources I have. I just accepted the words of Eve that were recorded as the words that she spoke. Since it appears to me that you do not accept that Eve spoke these words and they were added later, this “fix” of the contradiction allows for additions completely outside of the knowledge of the person who is quoted. Not good. This view makes the Bible deceptive by claiming something that is not true. I would reject that outright because in my world view God is not a deceiver nor does He inspire His Word to be deceptive. I also accept every word that is recorded of what Eve and the serpent said as statements that they did say and not later additions. I accept the words and the grammar as accurate. My belief in the Bible allows me to pay attention to what is said and understand the circumstances by the clear words and grammar.
The other conservative view is somewhat basically what i am putting forward. But again the research here is extensive and i am by no means an expert on it,
I have seen a lot of “research” from people who dispute the validity of Genesis. When God says something two or three times (two or three witnesses) it is determined.
Gen 41:32 “Now as for the repeating of the dream to Pharaoh twice, it means that the matter is determined by God, and God will quickly bring it about.
Yet people feel free to set aside God’s clear words and to make them into Genesis “parables” so that they can determine what they think God is saying that will conform to their own understanding. My view is that I take God at His Word. From there I work to see why there is a contradiction, but I never “solve” the problem by making God human who can lie or deceive. Words put into someone’s mouth that they didn’t actually say is nothing less than deceptive.
For example, did Jesus perform the same miracles 4 times over, did he say the same parables 4 times over etc etc. I’ll leave this here and hopefully if you choose to look into this further you might see why it is inaccurate to label me a liberal.
I have already done a lot of work on the so-called contradictions and when you pay attention to the words and the grammar the “contradictions” disappear. I don’t have to set aside any accuracy of the account to do so. Those who solve the problems by believing that those whom the Holy Spirit inspired add to the words of Jesus or add to the words of Eve are heading down the path of liberalism. What else has been added? And what else has been taken away. It is the Mormon claim that great and precious truths have been removed from the Scriptures. Is their view true? Why can’t it be true if people are allowed to embellish on the story, surely they can remove a story too. Adding to and taking away are in exactly the same camp. I would not want to see you slide further in to this camp for once you grant that the account is inaccurate and you don’t have to pay attention to the exact words and grammar, it is only another step to start the doubt on other passages and on and on. I will not go there. I already had my own crisis of faith in 1986 and I chose to accept God’s word even though I saw a major contradiction. I chose to accept that He was right and there was no contradiction even though I could not accept it. By God’s grace, He gave me that answer later that year, but I was very happy that I believed God first without knowing the answer. He is faithful! No one will ever convince me that God allowed additions to the words quoted as being from a witness of YHWH.
Not totally sure what you mean by this? Do you think this is what i believe?
Yes. If I understand you right, you seem to be saying that either Moses added God’s name to Eve’s quote in Genesis 4 or else Eve was following the serpent’s lead at removing God’s name in Genesis 3. You said that Moses could add God’s name in Genesis 4 in to Eve’s quote and that would apparently be fine with you. I strongly disagree.
For example it is almost universally recognised that Moses wrote the Pentateuch, yet it records his own death. If another writer redacted this at a later date does that make it less ‘inspired’ in your opinion? Or is it some sort of prophecy on Moses behalf about his own death?
I haven’t studied this one because my life is too busy right now to be distracted to other issues, but I can accept that either Moses prophesied about his own death or else another writer finished the story. Either way does not have another writer adding words to Moses’ mouth. Did Moses say “I died”? or is it written in the third person? Add words to another person’s mouth is deception, pure and simple.
“Although the term “source” is used for often than anything else, there can be other meanings.”
I’m glad you have said this, it makes it much easier to progress in the arguments.
In the OT septuagint, I believe that the translation (not inspired) used head to mean something other than source so apparently those writers were aware of another usage. However it appears that you now are ready to accept that “source” or “point of origin” is also an acceptable meaning while you were disputing the validity of other lexicons before. Have you now accessed the writings of Wayne Grudem to see where he admits this? I think his admission is a vital piece of evidence.“It is Andreas Kostenberger who teaches that women will be saved from deception if they continue in their roles as wives and mothers.”
So he is NOT saying it is her works that gives her salvation? Was Lin wrong in what she said about works salvation? His view is that it will just stop her from being deceived right and has nothing to do with her salvation?He is saying that her role saves her. Being deceived by satan is being carried away from the faith. Keeping her role will keep her in the faith. He is very clear about that. Andreas believes that if a woman teaches the Bible to men she is removing herself from her God-ordained role and God will remove His protection from her and will allow her to be deceived by satan. In essence the only thing that remove her out of the place of deception will be her repentance and her placing herself under the proper role. Perhaps “works” salvation would not be the right term. It would be more appropriate to say that he teaches a “role” salvation, which in my mind means the exact thing as “works” salvation. It is the work or place of a woman in her proper domain that will save her. Clear enough? Yah, I know pretty bad. I talked to him about that. I told him that it is showing a prejudice in God in that God never promised to save and keep preserved men who stay in their proper “role”. He said that my questions were good and deserved an answer but that he didn’t have an answer for me. I don’t think that he has properly thought this one through.
I didn’t say people haven’t rejected male leadership until feminism, i said people using ‘source’ as a definition combined with rejecting male leadership is new. I got that from David Garland’s Exegetical Commentary on 1 Corinthians. He might be wrong, i dunno???
First of all rejecting male leadership is not “new” and neither is the term “source” or “origin” a new term. In my DVD I document one of the early fathers using this term for head.
Secondly since David Garland admits that “Earlier interpreters understand (kephale) to mean “source” but with subordinationist overtones.” and since the rejection of male leadership is at least hundreds of years old, then how can you appeal to Garland as proof that the term “source” and rejection of male leadership is a new thing stemming from feminism?
Let’s see what Garland has to say in some of his comments that are very eye opening:
This analysis is not without its critics. First, the word “head” was rarely used to describe the relationship of one individual to another. Conzelmann (1975: 183 n. 21) notes, “Head does not denote sovereignty of one person over another, but over a community.” Thiselton (2000: 815–16) goes further and maintains that (kephale) “does not seem to denote a relation of ‘subordination’ or ‘authority over.’ ” He cites Chrysostom’s (Hom. 1 Cor. 26.3) comment that if Paul had intended to convey the idea of rule and subjection, he would have used master-and-slave imagery rather than the figures of man and woman. Chrysostom, however, is primarily interested in fending off any possible heretical interpretation of the subordination of Christ to God (see additional note). Second, Perriman (1994: 602–10) argues that Grudem misinterprets the texts that he adduces as evidence.8 Cervin (1989) is more pointed in challenging Grudem’s examples and methodology (see also Fee 1987: 502 n. 42). Third, this interpretation projects anachronistic physiological notions onto the meaning of “head.” Perriman (1994: 610 n. 20) notes that Plutarch’s fable (Agesilaus 2.3) about the serpent whose tail rebels against the head and takes the lead with disastrous consequences does not illustrate the head’s authority over the tail but that the head is specially equipped to go first. Finally, Perriman (1994: 620) maintains, “The question of authority is irrelevant to a discussion of the proper manner in which men and women should pray and prophesy; nor is it a valid deduction from the idea that man has authority over the woman that she should veil herself in worship, an activity directed not towards the man but towards God.”
A second alternative understands (kephale) to mean “source.” Christ is the source of man’s existence as the agent of creation (cf. 8:6, “through whom all things are”) or as the archetypal man (15:46–49). Man is the source of woman’s existence, since woman was made from man (Gen. 2:18–23; cf. 1 Cor. 11:12). God is the origin and final goal of all reality and is the source of Christ (3:23; 8:6; 11:12; 15:28). Earlier interpreters understand ?????? to mean “source” but with subordinationist overtones.9 Many recent interpreters who prefer this option seek to eliminate any hint of women’s subordination.10
Garland, D. E. (2003). 1 Corinthians. Baker exegetical commentary on the New Testament (514–515). Grand Rapids, Mich.: Baker Academic.So Garland gives some excellent points for why source or origin works within the text. Although he doesn’t appear to favor this option, but his words seem to set aside a subordination/rulership option for 1 Cor. 11:3. Garland continues:
Paul lays out an order of relationships that asserts the man’s precedence over the woman. Some conclude that he is trying to reinforce the idea of the woman’s inferiority and subordination. But if woman stands in a lower place, why does she stand in the middle of the sequence, and why is God mentioned last? Paul is not outlining a chain of command, since references to Christ frame the statements about man and woman.
Garland, D. E. (2003). 1 Corinthians. Baker exegetical commentary on the New Testament (513). Grand Rapids, Mich.: Baker Academic.So 1 Cor. 11:3 is not about a chain of command and Garland gives women’s freedom to prophesy as being under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit:
(1) Paul takes for granted that women may pray and prophesy in the assembly as long as they have an appropriate head covering. Meier (1978: 218) thinks it an “astounding fact—astounding at least for a group rising from a Jewish synagogue—that women were free in the church to pray openly and to prophesy under charismatic inspiration.” (2) The passage is not about the subordination of women, because the patriarchal order expressed in 11:3, 7–9 from creation is counterbalanced by the emphasis on the “mutual interdependence” of men and women in the Lord in 11:11–12.
Garland, D. E. (2003). 1 Corinthians. Baker exegetical commentary on the New Testament (510). Grand Rapids, Mich.: Baker Academic.Garland goes on to list the meaning of the show that the passage is about the shame/honor culture and that women’s public speaking is permissible.
In a hierarchically structured shame/honor society, Paul is concerned about the propriety of women’s appearance in public worship. He is not worried about male Christians becoming more effeminate in appearance. Nor is he concerned that women should wear something to show that their speaking in public is permissible
Garland, D. E. (2003)…This passage is “not about wearing hats to church or about proving that women are intended to be subordinate to men” (R. Williams 1997: 59). The command “let her be covered” (11:6) communicates different things in different cultures…Faithfulness to the teaching of the text can be maintained by female participants in the worship service by observing the proprieties of polite society.
Garland, D. E. (2003). 1 Corinthians. Baker exegetical commentary on the New Testament (510–511). Grand Rapids, Mich.: Baker Academic.Maybe you can point out to me Cheryl, someone before the rise of feminism who used ‘source’ as the basis of the rejection of male leadership. His evidence shows that even scholars who saw kephale as source, still did not reject male headship.
You greatly misunderstand. I am not rejecting male “headship”. It is what this “headship” means. It does not mean rulership or authority over just as the early church did not believe that the Father was in “authority over” Jesus in the Trinity.
Have you done a thorough study of the egalitarian view? Which books have you done a serious study of that present the other view? If you have looked into this from both sides, why do you have a problem understanding our view? If you haven’t looked at the other side, why not? I believe that looking at the other side may be even more important than bolstering your own view. This is what I do. I research the opposition to find out if there are holes in my argument and if so why there are holes. If I only look at one side, then I may be wrong and not even know it.
I did a complete breakdown of the NT uses of kephale in comments 87 and 89 in the post Do the genders have different functions? and posed a series of questions and challenges to Mark which went unanswered (understandably so with the multi-topic whirlwind in these several posts that he has been responding to). In that breakdown, I demonstrated that kephale is never used to show authority of the head over the body in Pauline metaphore. Unless Mark can twist some new meaning from the context or raw text that is not obvious, the “case is closed” on what Paul means, (or more accurately, what he doesn’t mean), when he uses kephale, which is all that matters in this discussion. I will paraphrase Tom Sawyer again: “Mark, your sayin’ so doesn’t make it so”. I have proven that kephale does not mean authority of head over the body in Paul’s usage. You have only stated that it does mean authority. Time to prove it.
At the risk of being presumptuous, here is the link to the post where I did the analysis on kephale in the NT, especially Paul’s metaphorical usage:
Thanks gengwall for providing that link!
gengwall,
I’d be glad if Mark would just answer your 3 questions at the end #87.
DAVE,
I’M SO GLAD YOU WEREN’T SHOUTING 🙂
“Add words to another person’s mouth is deception, pure and simple.”
It doesn’t get any more simple and clear than that!
Mark,
Not true! Moses wrote this and God used him to record what God wanted recorded. It in no ways makes it deceptive. I’m sure you will realise this once you get a chance to do some research on it.
The Watchtower thinks it is okay to rewrite history too. They have done this many times and have excused themselves. Now God is telling a man to rewrite a history account and that is okay? Maybe in Australia, but that doesn’t fly here in Canada.
I just don’t see that the ‘quotes’ have to be the exact words that people spoke. God has provided what he wants us to know.
So God wants us to “know” that it was wrong for Eve not to use His name so He had to put it back in to make sure she looks good? What other conversations did He rewrite? Or what other conversations didn’t even happen, but they have been added into history? Surely if God can add information that wasn’t there before, He can add anything else too. What’s the difference? Maybe when Adam saw Eve he really said “Huh? Um, God, I don’t like this one can you try again?” But God didn’t want that on the record so He changed Adam’s words so that Adam was now delighted with Eve.
If we take this same attitude we could rewrite the New Testament in the same way. Sure Paul wrote to Timothy “I am not permitting a woman to teach or authenteo a man” and God has no problem changing that to say “God is not permitting all women of any kind to teach men in the church or have any authority over men, husbands, or boys.” I mean, if that is what God really wants to say, then why can’t we just add in what He thinks should have been said? The opportunities for corrections are mind boggling. Where do we start and where do we end?
So which gospel is more accurate? Did Matthew quote Jesus properly on the sermon on the mount (Matt 5) or did Luke quote Jesus properly on his sermon on the plain (Luke 6)? Which gospel writer is being the deceptive one since they are not identical? Do you see the logical problem with what you are saying?
You are kidding right? You are trying to tell me that Jesus’ teachings has to be said the same in each place he went? Mark, you are trying so hard to find errors in the Bible as if differences are the same as inaccuracies? Why are you doing this? Is this what happens when one starts to believe that God can inspire people to change accounts and add in words that were not said? Now is the Bible inaccurate everywhere in your understanding? That Matthew or Luke added to what Christ said in His sermons? Do you see why I said that you are showing liberal ideas? If I dismissed Paul and said that I didn’t believe that 1 Timothy 2:12 was in the original but added later by someone who was inspired by God to add in a restriction, wouldn’t you say that I had liberal ideas? Mark, you scare me.
Oh dear Cheryl! What we have is what God wants us to have. He wanted us to have 4 differnet gospels although not identical.
So you are saying that God wants us to have inaccurate accounts? That the words that are quoted have been added to what Jesus said? There are 4 different accounts but they are not contradictory and every single one of them is true without embellishments. But it seems to me that you believe that one or two or more of the gospels were given freedom to change the events and embellish the conversations with details and words that never happened? Mark, my friend, Christians who hold to inerrancy don’t believe in fictitious embellishments that have been inspired by God. We believe that the events really happend and the conversations were brought into remembrance by the Holy Spirit so that they were recorded from the perspective of the author without additions to the conversation.
Just because the words are not identical doesn’t mean it’s a contradiction.
But just because the words are not identical doesn’t mean that some of the words are not what the person said and had to be added to the text.
Actually your view seems contradictory, because the gospels are so different in what they record Jesus saying- again which one is Jesus actual words? Please answer which gospel is closer to depicting Jesus actual words?
This is the voice of unbelief. All of the words are Jesus’ words. You tell me, which words are not those that Jesus spoke? Since I believe all of them are His words, then it is up to you to tell me which words are the words added in afterward?
What i am saying is that Moses recorded what God wanted recorded, so whether these are Eve’s exact words or not is irrelevant to inspiration, because what we have is what God wanted.
Can you give me a verse that says that God wants to add to our words? That God adding to the historical record is not noodling with the text? Please show me from the Scriptures where God says that He does such a thing. Again, if it was I that was saying these things, you would have blown me off a long time ago saying that egalitarians do not believe the Bible and have to accuse God of changing the original account in the area of women in ministry. You would call me a liberal and rightly so.
All i am saying is that we need to keep in mind contextual circumstances (Ancient near Eastern circumstances) and not ignore deliberate Hebrew emphasise which might help us understand the text better.
So God now has to be subject to culture? If the culture thinks it is fine to add to the words of a person, then God should just follow along with the culture and add to Eve’s words? What other words have been added to Adam? What other words have been added to the serpent? And how are you going to determine what words are added if the Bible doesn’t tell you? Is this placing God’s word underneath you and your discernment?
So your happy for people to add to narrative, but not direct quotes?
First of all I don’t know who added Moses’ death. It could have been a prophesy, could have been Miriam who added. It doesn’t claim the author so I don’t know. When Paul and Timothy wrote letters together which words were written by Paul and which ones were written by Timothy? I don’t know, but I do know that if a conversation is quoted and a person adds in words that are not original and claims that these words were original, then that is a lie.
If you don’t trust the quotes why do you trust the narrative? Again please give me your understanding of the gospels!
Please spare me. I don’t trust the quotes? I am not the one who is saying that someone added to Eve’s words. You are. I trust all of the quotes. You are the one who says that the quotes are not necessarily what the person said. You are the one who has the burden of proof to decide who was the one who did the noodling.
This is why i am here. Trying to understand your position. What does male ‘headship’ look like in your opinion?
That has already been discussed on my blog. The issue at hand is the exegesis of 1 Cor. 11.
Seems you against CBMW and am trying to link anything i say to them. Maybe i’m just indoctrinated by the bible?
I am not against the Christians at CBMW. But I do believe that they need to be held accountable for the doctrine that they teach. If you are really just indoctrinated by the Bible, then show me what the Bible says about “superiority” or “authority over” in 1 Cor. 11. Then I will be able to evaluate to see.
By the way i have done an exegesis for you all, and yes i am supposed to be studying, but church history is hard to be excited about. This blog is much more engaging. Do you want me to email it to you Cheryl?
Absolutely! I will then get it up for the next post.
My friend, I am very glad that you find this blog engaging. Thanks! I love talking about the Bible and women issues, etc. I do struggle with the liberal issues where people think that they can judge for themselves what is literally true and what is not quite accurate. There have been egalitarians here who have had that view and I have been upfront with them that if we don’t see the Scriptures as fully inspired as truth but see merely stories that give a general principle but which may not be factually correct, we are going to be deceived. Anytime our own judgment is pitted against the accurate Word, we will steadily lose confidence in the Word. I don’t want to see any precious brother or sister in Christ go down that path. That includes a brother who is an egalitarian or one who is a complementarian. Each is my brother and each needs to watch that they do not listen to the lie of “Hath God said?”
For all reading this post,
Okay, I eagerly await for the exegesis from Mark. Watch out for the next post, because I think that we can have some good discussion/debate. Just make sure that you treat Mark with respect and then away we go to the races!
“yes i am supposed to be studying, but church history is hard to be excited about. This blog is much more engaging.”
Amen!!
“Is that how you spell “waggily”?
I’m not sure, Dave. But it’s probably close enough for your purpose. 🙂
Mark,
You said:
I think i will leave the previous discussion alone now since you are insistent on thinking i’m a liberal, and am not willing to tell me which of Jesus words in the gospel are his direct actual words.
I already told you. All of the words of Jesus that are recorded are His words. Just because you don’t believe that doesn’t mean that I don’t. I can’t pick out one author and say that he quoted Jesus accurately and the other didn’t because I believe they all quoted Him accurately and none of the them added to His words. I sure would like to see which authors you think added to Jesus’ words? Surely couldn’t have been John. He was the one who Jesus loved. He wouldn’t have take the remembrance that the Holy Spirit gave and added to it. How about Luke? He was a historian. Surely he didn’t add to Jesus’ words? So my guess is that you believe that Matthew or Mark added to Jesus words? How would we be able to trust any of them again? What words ascribed to Jesus are now untrustworthy but concocted by a disciple in the name of the Holy Spirit’s approval?
I think it is just fine to drop the issue of liberalism. Let’s continue to discuss the truth of God’s word and leave aside the things that you think had to be rewritten. I am curious to know if CBMW or other complementarian authors agree with you that the conversations in Genesis may have gone to the rewriting department? If you have a quote from them or others that I could see, I would be extremely interested to know if this is also their view. I can’t say that I have ever read anything like this from them, but then sometimes things go right over my head.
By the way i don’t see contradictions in the bible, i see contradictions in your view.
Nah, you just don’t get my view. If you did, you wouldn’t keep asking me the same questions when I already gave you an answer. Now correct me if I am wrong, but my understanding is that you don’t see contradictions because you believe that the Holy Spirit inspired the writers of the gospels to add in things that they thought that Jesus said. So while one apostle thought Jesus said it one way, another thought Jesus said it another way and that was okay by the Holy Spirit because His job was just to help them remember that Jesus said something, not exactly what He said. Correct? So there are not actually contradictions but just inaccurate memories that were good enough for this level of a historical account. After all these men felt that it is not important what Jesus actually said but rather the feeling of the story and the principle is the important thing, not the actual words. Am I getting close to what you believe?
Now this makes no sense to me:
I have no problem with the spirit giving rememberence to the gospel writers, i just keep in mind the intended audience and purpose, therefore we can understand the structure, arrangement and whihc of Jesus miracles, words etc that particular gospel writer is using. Do i think that they say things Jesus didn’t say, of course not- so don’t think i think this.
What has the intended audience have to do with whether these were actually Jesus’ words or not? The gospels are historical accounts. They emphasize different parts of Jesus’ ministry and one some emphasize His humanity, John emphasizes His Diety. Does His words as a human have less need for accuracy than His words as Deity? How can the quotes of Jesus be inaccurate if they don’t say things that Jesus didn’t say? If you believe that the quotes are accurate and Jesus really did say those words then why do you dispute with me and try to make me accept that God had to fix up the quotes afterward to add things that weren’t said in the beginning like apparently God did with Eve? Or are you saying that what God did to Eve by messing with her words is not the exact thing that He did with Jesus? Do you see how confusing this has become? If you don’t want to carry on with this, that’s fine.
I would like to ask one thing…do you consider yourself an Emergent kind of guy? Are you a postmodern? Is truth fluid to you?
I am not trying to pin you down with a label. I am just trying to understand. If we need to move on, sure let’s move on. Maybe if you could give me a book that teaches what you are trying to say, then I could get a handle on it. I haven’t read any commentary or book that told me that God added to what Eve said after the fact. This is a novel idea to me and it just doesn’t fit in the world view of an Almighty God who is not like us.
Since you are so quick to ignore ANE context and the contexts and prupose of the gospel writers i’ll assume you will abandon your opinion on 1 Cor 14 where you rely heavily on the cultural talmud?
I’ll send the email soon.
Great! Now I want you to realize that you are special. Other than a debate situation I have never allowed a comp to post on my blog before. Now don’t get too puffed up. It may not happen again either 😉
Cheerios
We eat these for breakfast.
P.S I would really like you to tell me what you see as male headship? Or at least direct me to somewhere on this blog where you talk about it directly
Here are some of the posts that deal with this subject:
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2007/11/23/jesus-our-example-of-a-godly-husband/
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2007/11/03/does-head-mean-boss-when-it-is-connected-to-the-body/
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2008/09/11/who-cares/
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2008/01/22/the-husband-as-king-over-the-wife/
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2008/01/20/gods-woman-is-she-needy-of-a-representative-priest-part-2/
by the way i sent you the email
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