Dave

“Your second question seems abit silly really. Of course God can talk to his ‘daughter’ too. There is just no record of it, so why are we saying He did.”

Sorry to appear a bit silly, but some think that there was a chain in command thing happening, I was just wondering if you shared that view. At the same time, just because there is no record of it does nto mean that he didn’t. When you say no record of it, how do you explain the plural “You”. Also, if we only go with the command given to Adam, then why could Eve not eat of the fruit? It would be adding to the command to say Eve could not as it was only directed at Adam. Surely she had to have been told by God or at least God must have given further instructions to Adam to pass on that we are not told about. God never said to Adam to tell Eve about it, to tell Eve that she shouldn’t according to chapter 2.

I was referring to Exodus 20 and Exodus 34. My point is that not all the commandments are the same. There are two new tablets and the covenant is renewed and some of the commands are the same, and there are 10 commands…but they are not all the same. So, was there something God said regarding the “law” that we are not told about? Or do we assume that Moses is decieved and got the second lot wrong? Or is there more info we do not have? Or is our understanding of the law fundamentally wrong?

I am not “swerving” anything! As I cannot view the videos I can only involve myself in the conversation at a level that the discussion makes appropriate. I do hope to view them eventually, but I am sure Cheryl will deal with the issue before then. Also, Hebrew grammar was never my strongpoint! Perhaps that is swerving? 😉