Cheryl Schatz

Mark,
You said:

I am not given Moses leeway. THe fact is simple, he writes after he knows YAHWEH so he uses that name for GOd all thorugh Genesis. So when it is not there with the serpent and Eve we need to think why not?

If Moses has to “correct” Eve and add LORD (YHWH) to the word God, then can you please tell me why he did not correct himself in Genesis 1? Why did Moses only write “God”? Is he into correcting only a woman and not seeing that he failed to called God by the term LORD even though he knew it?