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Cheryl, I understand your position on [1 Timothy 2:12-15](logos4:///Bible/1Ti 2.12-15) to be that Paul is telling one specific wife in the church to stop teaching her husband false doctrine, and that
Cheryl, it seems to me that you have fabricated a rule of Greek grammar for yourself regarding what ‘she’ and ‘they’ can or cannot refer to in order to prop up your view on [1 Timothy 2:11-15](logos4:
Don: “In Greek the presence of the definite article makes the noun definite, but the absence of the definite article does NOT necessarily make the noun indefinite, see Wallace “Greek Grammar Beyond th
Cheryl says in her blog post “What does [1 Timothy 2:11-15](logos4:///Bible/1Ti 2.11-15)?” under point #17: “The grammar f[rom 1](logos4:///Bible/Ro 1) Timothy 2:15 requires the identification of a si