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Son of Man in Mark's Gospel: Jesus clearly uses the title self-referentially

20 Questions with Pastor Mike (Episode 29) 01:16:54 – 01:21:31

Question from Skeptic Reviews claiming Jesus used "Son of Man" in the third person to refer to someone other than himself.

Winger examines four occurrences of "Son of Man" in Mark. (1) Mark 2:10 — Jesus heals the paralytic and says the Son of Man has authority to forgive sins, then commands the paralytic to rise; the entire pericope makes it impossible to read this as a different person. (2) Mark 8:31 — Jesus predicts the Son of Man will suffer, be rejected, killed, and rise after three days; Peter rebukes him, demonstrating Peter understands Jesus is talking about himself. (3) Mark 9:9 — Jesus commands silence about the transfiguration "until the Son of Man had risen from the dead," clearly self-referential. (4) Mark 14:21 — Jesus says one of the twelve will betray him, then says "the Son of Man goes as written... woe to the one who betrays the Son of Man," making the identification with himself unmistakable in context. No casual reading of Mark can sustain the theory that Son of Man refers to someone other than Jesus.

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