Scriptural Fences
One of the helpful things in interpreting scripture is to identify what I call “scriptural fences”. These special verses force us to interpret the passage within the limits set up by the “fence” line
Date: 2008-05-14
URL: https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2008/05/14/scriptural-fences/
One of the helpful things in interpreting scripture is to identify what I call “scriptural fences”. These special verses force us to interpret the passage within the limits set up by the “fence” line. When we can identify a “fence” in scripture, we are well on our way to understanding the apparent contradictions within scripture. In this post I am going to give three examples of scripture “fences”.
The first fence line is found in Revelation chapter 21.
Rev. 21:14 And the wall of the city had twelve foundation stones, and on them were the twelve names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb.
Now to some, this may not seem like a “fence” but when we read in Acts 1 that the apostles picked Matthias to replace Judas, we have a contradiction that needs to be dealt with:
Act 1:20 “For it is written in the book of Psalms, ‘LET HIS HOMESTEAD BE MADE DESOLATE, AND LET NO ONE DWELL IN IT’; and, ‘LET ANOTHER MAN TAKE HIS OFFICE.’
Act 1:21 “Therefore it is necessary that of the men who have accompanied us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us–
Act 1:22 beginning with the baptism of John until the day that He was taken up from us–one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection.”
Act 1:23 So they put forward two men, Joseph called Barsabbas (who was also called Justus), and Matthias.
Act 1:24 And they prayed and said, “You, Lord, who know the hearts of all men, show which one of these two You have chosen
Act 1:25 to occupy this ministry and apostleship from which Judas turned aside to go to his own place.”
Act 1:26 And they drew lots for them, and the lot fell to Matthias; and he was added to the eleven apostles.
How could Matthias be an apostle who replaces Judas when Paul claimed to be an apostle picked by the risen Christ? Some may claim that there are actually 13 foundational apostles, but that is impossible. Why? It is because of the scriptural “fence”. The book of Revelation states that they are 12 apostles who form the foundation stones, not 13. If we interpret scripture with the understanding that Revelation 21:14 forms a boundary or a “fence” that places a boundary for our understanding, then we need to make a decision; was Paul the 12th apostle or was Matthias? Did you ever wonder why Paul had to try so hard to prove his apostleship? It is because Psalms 109:8 says that another is to take his (Judas) place and the 11 disciples had already picked the 12th before Paul even came on the scene.
Psalm 109:8 Let his days be few; Let another take his office.
The word for “office” is supervision. It is a place of supervising or overseeing the foundation of the church. For some reason the 11 disciples thought that it was their job to appoint a replacement for Judas, but neither scripture nor revelation from God told them to do this. Because they took authority over something that they were not give authority over, the dice (or lot see verse 26) was cast and this was what determined that Matthias was ordained into ministry with the eleven. However it wasn’t their responsibility. Just as Jesus’ chose the eleven disciples, so he alone was the one who had the authority and responsibility to choose the twelfth apostle to replace Judas. Jesus chose Paul (Romans 1:1; 2 Corinthians 1:1; Galatians 1:1; Ephesians 1:1; 1 Timothy 1:1). Paul was constantly having to affirm that he was chosen by Christ as an apostle because Matthias already had Paul’s place. Paul specifically says that he was not ordained by man in Galatians 1:1, yet Matthias WAS the one ordained by man.
Galatians 1:1 PAUL, AN apostle–[special messenger appointed and commissioned and sent out] not from [any body of] men nor by or through any man, but by and through Jesus Christ (the Messiah) and God the Father, Who raised Him from among the dead–
So our understanding that Matthias was not a true foundational apostle is made clear by the scriptural “fence” verse found in Revelation 21:14 and Paul’s claim to be ordained not by man but by Jesus himself
Another scriptural “fence” is found in 1 Corinthians 14:36. The interpretation of verses 34 & 35 are hemmed in by the “fence” of verse 36. Some don’t know what to do with the “silencing” of women in verses 34 & 35 so they have taken a position of either disregarding these two verses or claiming that these verses are not in the original manuscripts. Yet there is no manuscript where these two verses are not in the text. This means that there is no evidence whatsoever there these verses are not in the original inspired text. While I appreciate Gordon Fee and his scholarly work on other verses, he is one that has taken the position that verses 34 & 35 are an interpolation into the text by some unknown people. The problem that Mr. Fee has in taking this position is that the “fence” of verse 36 will not allow theses verse to be removed or we are left with a “refutation” of nothing. There is also a problem in that if we do this to other texts we don’t like, then any verse we don’t like could likewise be removed from the scriptures with no textual evidence for its removal. We cannot do this and be faithful to God’s inspired word. But if we understand the “fence” that hedges verse 34 & 35 in, we will not have any problem with these verses. Verse 36 starts with the Greek word “n” or English word “what!”
The Exegetical dictionary of the New Testament says “n” is used frequently to introduce rhetorical questions to which a negative answer is expected. 1 Cor. 14:36 is then included as an example of something that we are expected to answer “NO!” to. Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon also agrees. It lists the “n” as a disjunctive conjunction before a sentence contrary to the one just preceding, to indicate that if one be denied or refuted the other must stand, and Thayer’s also lists 1 Cor. 14:36 as an example of a grammatical structure that stands as denial of verses 34 and 35 where the alternative position of verse 36 must stand.
So Paul is saying “What!The word of God has come only to you (men and not women)?” (No women learning in the church and no women speaking in the church?) and we are to answer this rhetorical question with a “NO!”Verses 34 & 35 are then a quote from the Corinthian letter to Paul and Paul promptly refutes this demand about silencing women by using a disjunctive conjunction that produces a rhetorical question that must be answered in the negative. If verses 34 & 35 are removed as Gordon Fee would like, what would Paul be refuting by the precise grammar of verse 36?There would be nothing to refute!Some say that Paul is refuting what he thinks the Corinthians might say to his own commands in verses 34 & 35 but the precise grammar (the “fence”) of verse 36 refutes this view. The grammar demands that the preceding sentences are refuted by verse 36.Verse 36 is a scriptural “fence” that logically proves that Paul was quoting from the Corinthian’s letter to Paul (1 Corinthians 7:1Now concerning the things about which you wrote…) and Paul’s grammar has set the refutation solidly within a scriptural “fence”.
The last fence that I would like to look at is the scriptural “fence” in 1 Timothy 2:15. We have talked a lot about this very precise verse in previous posts, but I would like you to see it today as a solid “fence” that sets up the boundaries of the prohibition passage. What this “fence” does is set up the farthest that we can go in interpreting 1 Timothy 2:12. We cannot know who Paul is prohibiting in verse 12 from teaching without limiting the application to knowing who the “she” and who the “they” are in verse 15.
There are those who have tried hard to ignore the “fence” of verse 15. Some have even gone so far as to claim that Paul’s grammar was in error. They claim that while he said “she” AND “they”, what he really meant was “they” or “all women”. This is not correct. The grammar of the verse is precise and we cannot ignore the inspired grammar without doing violence to the text. The problem with the typical hierarchical interpretation of verse 12 is that it does not fall within the boundaries of verse 15. The typical interpretation of verse 12 ignores verse 15 treating it as if part of the inspired grammar is to be ignored and also it is treated as if Paul is introducing a topic that is foreign to the context of the prohibition in verse 12. This too is wrong. For more information on what verse 15 means in context, see my post on the rest of the story.
Pastors can get away with so much when they have an ignorant, passively receptive audience! We should ALL be double-checking their teaching!!!! Shame on me for waiting so long to jump into the Berean fray!
Speaking of interlinears, I just blogged about this Here. It includes a paraphrase I just finished on the letter to the Ephesians.
Hi Truthseeker,
The first one is likely out of print. It’s by a Dr. George Ricker Berry that was printed in 1961. The other is the one at Scripture 4 All.
I once asked a pastor why the literal readings in the interlinear were different from the KJV text along the side margins, and he had no idea. Didn’t seem to care either.
Paula – great observation on Eph 2 and thanks for the online link to an interlinear!
Cheryl,
Bushnell was not saying that Eve was a separate being inside of Adam, but that God fashioned her from the “part” (not “rib”) he took out (see This Article). There is no reason this couldn’t have been the “female” part.
Paula, per androgynous process…sort of a distant cousin to Siamese twinship in a sense?
Cheryl,
There is an open letter to egalitarians out here written by Wayne Grudem (CBMW). In it, there are 6 points he takes to task concerning egalitarian interpretation of scripture:
http://www.cbmw.org/Journal/Vol-3-No-1/An-Open-Letter-to-Egalitarians
In point 3, he belabors the Greek “or” construction as a means by which Paul affirms 1 Cor. 14:34-35 as valid and binding. Basically, Dr. Grudem is saying that verse 36 is a “fence” of sorts that affirms the silence of women in corporate assembly.
The letter is a nice way of saying to all of us who hold egalitarian views of scripture to either “put-up” or “shut-up”. You Cheryl, Paula, Suzanne McCarthy and others have done an admirable job of “putting-up” so to speak.
But just in case there’s a Godly woman reading this blog right now and who is struggling with gender issues, please reiterate that God has no such “law” silencing women. She may be paralyzed with fear right now that it’s the serpent whispering in her ear…..”hath God said?”….
16 Paula,
You said: “Bushnell was not saying that Eve was a separate being inside of Adam, but that God fashioned her from the “part” (not “rib”) he took out (see This Article). There is no reason this couldn’t have been the “female” part.”
This is where I come to a disagreement with Bushnell. There are a couple of reasons why. First of all from her article she does say that it is “Eve” who is in Adam. This is what makes the androgynous “man” with both female and male parts. It is an “Eve” within Adam otherwise you cannot take “Eve” out but would have to take out females parts out of “Adam”. So in this view “Adam” and “Eve” are created together and only separated later. Yet Paul says that Adam was created first and then Eve (1 Timothy 2:13). How can Adam be created first and then Eve if Adam and Eve are created together in one body? It appears from her article that Bushnell is taking her view from biology instead of scripture. I am not knocking Bushnell here. I appreciate her knowledge of scripture and the amazing things that she found even without the internet and the resources that we have today. But I very much disagree with her about Eve being in Adam in creation. God specifically said that he took something out and from this something he created a female. There is no hint in the text that what he took out was female. Where is the evidence that is was female parts that he took out. I would think that this should have some foundation in scripture instead of speculation.
Bushnell says: “Nothing could be more unscientific than the representation that Eve was made from a single bone taken from Adam’s body.”
Again, I am not knocking Bushnell. She was a wonderful lady who really loved God, but her reliance on science here instead of just the word of God in this one instance at least, is troubling to me. Who cares what science says? God says that he took out a “plank, a board, an inner chamber” and out of that he made Eve. The term “rib” is well within the Hebrew word that refers to a hard building material such as a board. This is what God chose to do and we are to test all things and hold fast to what is true. Everyone can make a mistake (even me!) and I believe that this is one area that Bushnell made a mistake by relying on science. Now I could be proven wrong, but to prove me wrong, a person would have to go to the bible to get the job done and not to science.
Now you see why so many have called me a confounded skeptic. I have to have everything proven by scripture and I really don’t care what famous person or biblical scholar says even if it is an egalitarian that I admire. When I see error when I compare the proposed idea to scripture, I reject it. When scripture corrects me, I will bow to scripture every time.
😉
I noticed there are some formatting problems with my previous post, I have no idea why.
Don,
I fixed the excessive lines between posts 🙂 now nobody will accuse me of “editing” their posts because of my formating it properly will they?
“RE: Grumdens explanation of 1 Corinthians 11:34-36.”
oops. Should have read 1 Corinthians 14. But then, you all knew that. 😉
OK, please feel free to delete this post if you feel I’ve gone too far, but I’m reading on CARM the moderators posts about Matt’s and Cheryl’s possible debate…. and this came up…..
“Cheryl refuses a professional debate with Matt, she wants to blog, attack, gossip,insult, whine victim and claim she is misrepresented….Sorry, but historically, when I have had to deal with such types, this is the ONLY thing they understand…I know what I am doing…She wants to threaten ministries, this ministry will fight back…..This is what Paul taught us, to reach them on their level, THIS is her level….she is being handled……”
Those things I underlined are the very things the CARM owners have done, not this blog. Furthermore, because she refused to allow links to verify claims, her readers are not permitted to see the reality of it, but are forced to take her words as accurate. This makes it become a double dishonor to herself when readers do find this blog and realize that it is she who has misrepresented the whole thing.
Link to post and discussion:
http://www.christiandiscussionforums.org/v/showthread.php?p=2914974#post2914974
p.s. what is the code for hiding a link inside one word?
P.S. The lots to select Matthias may have been votes. It may also have been random. I do not see enough info to decide.
Recall that there were 70 sent out at one point and being sent out by Jesus meant that this group met one criterion for being “sent-out ones” or apostles.
Good thinking Lin…. 🙂
Oops. I missed the anti-spam word and copied the code from the other page.
Grudem’s Open Letter to Egalitarians has been well answered many times. In fact, that webpage used to contain the responses of Linda Belleville, to whom I am indebted for much of my research.
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Since I have started to quote from that page and from Belleville and have proven that every one of the points was based on evidence that does not exist, CBMW has vastly edited that page and other pages to remove all their supposed evidence from their articles.
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I wish I had saved the earlier pages from the CBMW website. There are very simple ways to refute each of those arguments.
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1. Grudem: Specifically, we cannot find any text where person A is called the ”head’’ of person or persons B, and is not in a position of authority over that person or persons.
McCarthy: ”the whole family of the Ptolemies was exceedingly eminent and conspicuous above all other royal families, and among the Ptolemies, Philadelphus was the most illustrious; for all the rest put together scarcely did as many glorious and praiseworthy actions as this one king did by himself, being, as it were, the leader of the herd, and in a manner the kephale (head) of all the kings.” Philo, Moses 2:30
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Clearly, Philadelphus was not the authority over the other kings in his family. His father was also a Ptolemy, and Philadelphus could hardly be the authority over his own father.
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2. Grudem: Will you please show us one example in all of ancient Greek where this word for ”be subject to’’ (hypotasso, passive) is used to refer to one person in relation to another and does not include the idea of one-directional submission to the other person’s authority?
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McCarthy: 2 Macc 13.23,
”[King Antiochus Eupator] got word that Philip, who had been left in charge of the government, had revolted in Antioch; he was dismayed, called in the Jews, yielded (hupotage) and swore to observe all their rights, settled with them and offered sacrifice, honored the sanctuary and showed generosity to the holy place.”
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The king ”submitted” to the Jews, who had no authority over him. He yielded to them for political reasons.
3. I have not researched this.
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4. Grudem: Our problem is this: we have never seen any clear example in ancient Greek literature where authenteo must mean ”domineer’’ or ”misuse authority.’’ Whenever we have seen this verb occur, it takes a neutral sense, ”have authority’’ or ”exercise authority,’’ with no negative connotation attaching to the word itself.
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McCarthy: BGU 1208 (first century B.C.): ”I had my way with him [authenteo] and he agreed to provide Catalytis the boatman with the full payment within the hour.”
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This is the ONLY occurrence of authenteo is ancient literature. This citation is listed in the original study by Baldwin under the meaning of ”to compel, to influence someone.” and Grudem agrees with the translation ”compel.” (Ev. Fem & Biblical Truth. page 677 – 680.) According to Grudem other translators suggest ”prevail” and mention that this is a hostile relationship involving insolence.
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The only example is listed as ”to compel.”
5. Grudem: oude 1 Tim. 2:12. … when we look at other examples of this Greek construction, in the form ”neither + [verb 1] + nor + [verb 2],’’ only two patterns occur: (a) verb 1 and verb 2 are activities or concepts that are both viewed positively, such as ”neither sow nor reap,’’ or ”neither eat nor drink,’’ or (b) verb 1 and verb 2 are activities or concepts that are both viewed negatively, such as ”neither break in nor steal’’ or ”neither leave nor forsake.
McCarthy: Since authenteo can only have a negative meaning, both verbs must have a negative force in this verse.
6. I have not looked at this either.
For # 1, 2 and 4 there is a clear response to Grudem. However, I have not researched the others to find examples of specific grammatical patterns. The Lexicon is clear that the meanings are ambiguous, but I just haven’t taken the time to find a collection of examples.
I have been able to disprove many of Grudem’s statements against the TNIV as well. I have sent many emails to CBMW asking them to take down evidence taken out of context, or claims that are not supported by fact. They started doing this but ultimately gave up and stopped responding to my emails. They at first got me to review some stuff and got the authors to respond to me. However, they could not take down the entire kephale study, which is for the most part inaccurate, so they did just start ignoring me.
Thanks also for providing this research. It is good information for us that ready needs someone of your caliber can provide!
Doesn’t GWTW have anything like that? I know they have tons of material, but I’m not sure they have a centralized Q and A sort of thing. I think that would be very useful for those who don’t want to wade through reams of scholarly detail. I’d be willing to assemble one if it doesn’t already exist. I already have a “wiki” summary of egal at http://wiki.fether.net (and I’m watching to see how long it lasts at http://www.conservapedia.com/Egalitarian)>). It would be nice if those with run-ins with CBMW, Grudem, and CARM could collect links with short summaries, and then I’d put it all into a handy chart or something.
Did Paul have this authority?
Correction: earlier I said GWTW when I was thinking of CBE. They do have a sort of primer on egal at This Link though.
Found something else in Ephesians.
In 5:5 we see the phrase commonly translated “you are saved by grace”. But this, like “dead to sin”, is in the dative case. I went to This Grammar Link and looked at the various options for the dative case here, and by process of elimination I concluded that it should read “You are the ones who have been saved because of grace!”. To use “by” here is wrong because grace is the cause, not the instrument. Grace is why we are saved, not how. The instrument of our salvation is the death and resurrection of Jesus.
Again in verse 8: “Because of grace you were saved”.
This may not seem like a big deal, but it points out sloppy translation that seems driven more by tradition and sometimes bias than a desire to accurately convey the words of scripture.
Oops, that should be 2:5, not 5:5.
I see somehow my post got slightly scrambled. The last sentence is part of a quote from the BIble.
It is probably better to do this offline or on another thread.
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