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Lydia

Lydia

2011-04-10

“And why does he bury this universal, timeless command for all churches for all time, in a personal letter to his deputy whom he has left behind to correct problems in one particular church having to do with false teaching (1 Tim 1:3)? Why does he commend many women in Rome who clearly have some influence (Rom 16), without mentioning to them that they would be going too far with this authority if they used it to teach or lead in a mixed-gender church gathering?”

Exactly. It seems only the Ephesian women and the Corinthian women were affected. And in Corinth, they had to be completely silent. Not even hello in gatherings… And the widows were out of luck in Corinth if they had no husband to ask at home. :o)

Another point you make would mean the comps must call Paul a liar. According to comps, women do not get a FULL inheritance of all things spiritual in salvation. Paul was not being honest in Galatians? Seems he would have listed the prohibitions on women here if there were any since he was proclaiming full inheritance for all…even if slaves, women or Gentiles.

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Original Article

Calling God To Account

2010-05-14