Calling God To Account
While God is Sovereign, some men believe that they can set a limit on God’s gifts. In the Council on Biblical Manhood and Womanhood’s doctrinal stand, they believe that God is allowed to distribute gifts to men and women alike with the gifts listed in 1 Cor
Date: 2010-05-14
URL: https://mmoutreach.org/wim/2010/05/14/calling-god-to-account/

While God is Sovereign, some men believe that they can set a limit on God’s gifts. In the Council on Biblical Manhood and Womanhood’s doctrinal stand, they believe that God is allowed to distribute gifts to men and women alike with the gifts listed in 1 Cor. 12:4-26 but that He does not gift women with the gifts mentioned in Ephesians 4:11 or 1 Peter 4:10, 11 for those gifts are for men alone. Randy Stinson and Christopher Cowan writing an article for the Journal for Biblical Manhood and Womanhood a work of CBMW write that:
By God’s grace, all men and women who believe in the Lord Jesus Christ receive spiritual gifts to equip them to serve together in Christ’s body-the church. God grants these gifts through his Spirit to all believers without distinction and for the edification of all (1 Cor 12:4-11). No member of Christ’s church is unneeded; each is gifted by God’s will so that the church, though many parts, may be one body (1 Cor 12:12-26).
Here we can see that they agree with us on several important issues regarding God’s gifts:
- God’s gifts are given to all believers
- God’s gifts are given without distinction (regarding social status, race or gender)
- God’s gifts are given for the edification of all
- No member of the church is unneeded with their God-given gift
- The purpose of the gifts is to allow the church to be one body
However God cannot sovereignly give the gifts from Ephesians 4:11 or 1 Peter 4:10, 11 because CBMW has determined that the gifts in these lists are for men alone. Here is what Ephesians 4 says:
Ephesians 4:11–12 (NASB)
11 And He gave some as apostles, and some as prophets, and some as evangelists, and some as pastors and teachers,
12 for the equipping of the saints for the work of service, to the building up of the body of Christ;
According to an article on CBMW’s site authored by John MacArthur, no woman can be an evangelist nor can a woman be a pastor or teacher. The article is from John MacArthur’s sermon:
There is not a woman evangelist. There is not a woman who wrote…and you have twenty-seven books in the New Testament…any portion of the New Testament. All sixty-six books are written by men. And the New Testament is consistent with God’s plan for women as revealed in the Old, no woman is an evangelist, no woman is a preacher- teacher… There is not recorded in the text of all the New Testament a sermon delivered by a woman…or teaching given by a woman, none. They are not prophets. They are not evangelists.
John MacArthur has greatly overstated his case. First of all to state that no woman wrote any part of the New Testament would be to boldly claim that he knows who wrote the book of Hebrews. How does he know that no woman wrote any book in the New Testament? If he knows that no woman was an author of a book in the NT, then surely he must know who wrote the book of Hebrews. But he doesn’t. MacArthur himself has stated:
Hebrews was written by an unknown author. Some think it was Paul, some Apollos, and some Peter. I stand with one of the great teachers of the early church by the name of Origen who said, “Nobody knows.” One thing we do know, it was written by the Holy Spirit. I personally don’t believe it was written by Paul.
And what about the Old Testament? Who wrote the book of Esther? And what about the book of Ruth? Can John MacArthur claim to know who wrote the book of Ruth and that the person was a man? Does MacArthur’s confident claim make him sure that he knows who wrote all of these books? His own words show that he does not have special inside information so his over confidence is ill advised.
MacArthur claims to know of no female evangelist, no female Biblical teacher and no female Biblical author. This must mean that God cannot gift women as preachers, teachers, pastors or evangelists since according to MacArthur women cannot be preachers, teachers, pastors or evangelists. But does God have to follow the expectations of John MacArthur and CBMW or can God sovereignly gift women with any gift as He sees fit? Some complementarians even agree that there might be many gifted women who can do a better job at preaching and teaching than many men. CARM (Christian Apologetics and Research Ministry) has a founder who has dedicated himself to warning the church against women pastors and who seeks to encourage the church to remove women pastors from a place of authoritative teaching and preaching. In fact, this man loves to go into churches that have female pastors and confront them and their fellow male pastors. Yet even CARM’s founder admits that there are gifted women out there, even though he denies that gifting is the deciding factor:
There are many gifted women who might very well do a better job at preaching and teaching than many men. However, it isn’t gifting that is the issue, but God’s order and calling.
According to CARM, God does not “call” women as pastors even though God apparently has gifted many for preaching and teaching. So what is God doing gifting women this way?
Let’s look at it this way. According to these complementarians, God’s gifts to women for preaching, teaching and pastoring either doesn’t exist at all or these gifts are claimed to be of no consequence since God’s gifts are subordinated to God’s calling. And how would we know what is God’s calling? Aren’t the gifts evidence of God’s calling? Not according to CBMW, MacArthur, and CARM. Apparently, there are some gifts given by God that are meant to be withheld from the common good even though God Himself said that His gifts are commanded to be used for the common good.
1 Corinthians 12:7 (NASB)
7 But to each one is given the manifestation of the Spirit for the common good.
God’s command is that the gifts that are given are to be employed for the church as good stewards of God’s grace.
1 Peter 4:10–11 (NASB)
10 As each one has received a special gift, employ it in serving one another as good stewards of the manifold grace of God.
11 Whoever speaks, is to do so as one who is speaking the utterances of God; whoever serves is to do so as one who is serving by the strength which God supplies; so that in all things God may be glorified through Jesus Christ, to whom belongs the glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen.
So while Scripture says that “whoever” is gifted with speaking is to speak the utterances of God, these complementarians say that women are not allowed to speak the utterances of God in public for the common good. It is no wonder that they stay away from 1 Peter 4:10, 11 as the context is Christian worship and speaking the utterances of God is nothing less than authoritative speech in worship assemblies according to the Word Biblical Commentary.
11 “Whoever does the speaking, [do it] as one bringing words from God.” (lit. “if anyone”) does not introduce conditional clauses in this verse, but simply means “one who,” or “whoever” (see BGD, 220.VII). Peter introduces only two examples of “God’s diversified grace,” speaking and serving (in contrast to seven examples in Rom 12:6–8 and nine in 1 Cor 12:7–11). Having emphasized all along the danger of “evil speaking”…Peter now points to the positive importance of speech as a source of strength and cohesion among Christian believers. “Speaking” refers not to ordinary conversation (which would not have to be “a word from God”) but to authoritative speech in worship assemblies. While Kelly (180) limits the speaking Peter has in mind to “routine functions like teaching and preaching” (in distinction from “ecstatic utterances”), there is no proof of this in the text. The term could embrace all that Paul includes under “prophecy” (Rom 12:6), “teaching” (Rom 12:7), and “exhortation” (Rom 12:8), as well as “wisdom” and “knowledge” (1 Cor 12:8). …It is clear, however, that his focus is not on missionary proclamation (as, e.g., in Acts 4:1; 10:44; 13:42) but on the speech of Christian believers “to each other” (v 10) in a setting of worship.
Michaels, J. R. (2002). Vol. 49: Word Biblical Commentary : 1 Peter. Word Biblical Commentary (249–250).
The inspired Scripture in 1 Peter 4:10 makes universal language clear that “each one has a gift” and in verse 11 “whoever speaks” is to speak with God’s authority.
Women are commanded to use their God-given gifts and God has surely gifted them with things that He intends for them to use. Women like men are commanded to use their gifts for the common good. Also it is clear from the Scriptures that God has commanded all of us to use our God-given gifts and we will give an account of what we did with what God gave us. We are not to set our gifts aside to leave them unused or bury our gifts. We are all accountable.
So the question we need to ask is, should we call God to account for gifting women in areas that men say God has “disallowed” or “disqualified” women from using their gifts for the benefit of all? After all wouldn’t it mean that God would be guilty of creating a terrible dilemma for women? They either use their gifts for the common good and get God’s wrath for doing so (according to complementarians who determine that using these gifts for the common good is a sin) or they shelve their gifts and withhold them from the common good and get God’s wrath for withholding His gifts from the body Christ which is the intended purpose of all of the gifts.
Does this sound reasonable that God gifts people but He then forbids them from using their gifts? Should anyone be fearful of using their God-given gifts for the benefit of the body of Christ?
It is far more reasonable to understand that the gifting is God’s endorsement to use the gift. 1 Peter 4:10, 11 stands in sharp contrast to CARM’s claim that a “calling” (a calling that mere men determine if it is a valid calling or not) supersedes God’s “gifts”. Let’s look at it God’s Word one more time and you decide. Is God guilty of gifting for the purpose of causing women to sin? Or is every gift that comes down from the Father of lights a good and perfect gift and the one who has been given the gift has the authority to use their gift?
1 Peter 4:10–11 (NASB)
10 As each one has received a special gift, employ it in serving one another as good stewards of the manifold grace of God.
11 Whoever speaks, is to do so as one who is speaking the utterances of God; whoever serves is to do so as one who is serving by the strength which God supplies; so that in all things God may be glorified through Jesus Christ, to whom belongs the glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen.
James 1:16–17 (NASB)
16 Do not be deceived, my beloved brethren.
17 Every good thing given and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow.
If every good gift given is from the Father of lights and there is no variation or shifting shadow in God or shadow in God’s gift, then what God has given cannot be evil and the exercise of that gift cannot be sin for God is not the author of sin. Can we charge God with evil for giving gifts to women that are forbidden for them to use? Not at all. God does not author sin and God’s giving of His gifts to women is the authority of God for them to use what He has given for the common good.
Excellent article, I liked it.
Keep it simple, seems to be the way to go. If you are gifted in a certain area, why not use it for common good, how hard can it be!
Hi Jane,
I appreciate your thoughts and you taking time to record your angst against religion. But I would like to say that the failures of men do not indict the Ancient of Days who created us. His way is far different than our traditional ways. I created a new post that lists His ideals in how the man should treat the woman as by His own example. http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2010/05/23/authority-vs-submission-biblical-view/
“I am a complementarian because I don’t see any other way to understand God’s word on the issue.”
One reason you don’t see any other way is because you have only been shown one way and told that any one who dosen’t hold to this single view doesn’t respect scripture.
Keep in mind a couple things. There are centuries of tradition and prejudice against women that back up the complementarian view. For most of those centuries only men with a bias view of women (due to their culture*) have been allowed to handle and translate the Word. If, instead, women had been the gate keepers of the origianal Greek and Hebrew and were the ones who decided which verses were more important and to be lifted up and which verses were to be ignored or swept away, our understanding of the Bible and gender would be very different.
* An example of blatant bias against women only 450 years ago:
“Five years earlier, in 1647, Fox was both a seeker and a finder. He met with various people and groups, but none spoke to his condition. One group, “held [that] women have no souls…no more than a goose.” Fox responded by quoting Scripture, where Mary, the mother of Jesus, said, “My soul doth magnify the Lord, and my spirit hath rejoiced in God my savior.” [Luke 1:46-47] ”
Taken from:
http://trilogy.brynmawr.edu/speccoll/quakersandslavery/commentary/themes/radical_quaker_women.php
Jeremy said:
“These reasons are the creation order and Eve’s deception. These reasons are not cultural or temporal, but eternal. Therefore, his command is eternal. No?”
Not necessarily.
There are several places where Paul refers to the creation or to creation theology while clearly not intending to make his present discussion timeless and universal. 2 Cor. 11:3 is one. Most churches also do not believe that the head-coverings commands of 1 Cor. 11 were intended as timeless and universal, but were related to cultural understandings of the meanings of head coverings in an honor-shame culture– and yet Paul refers to the creation order in that chapter as well. In 1 Cor. 10:11 Paul speaks in general of the way he uses references to OT narratives, saying that they are “examples” and “warnings.” He does not say anything about them being meant to ground NT truths.
Also, it is my understanding reason that the word “gar” translated as “for” in “For Adam was formed first, then Eve,” means “for example” or “for illustration” more often than it means “for the reason that” in Paul’s writings.
For these reasons, I do not believe the creation narrative in 1 Tim 2 need be viewed as a way to make what Paul “was not permitting” there timeless and universal. I think it related to a specific problem in a specific church, and the message we should receive from it is, “Those in deception should not be permitted to teach until they have quietly sat down and learned true doctrine.”
If Paul really was giving a universal, timeless prohibition against any and all women ever having authority in the church, these questions must be seriously considered and answered:
Why does he use the word “authentein” instead of the usual word for “have authority,” which is “exousia”? Why does he begin the passage with the words “I do not permit” in the present active indicative tense, rather than, “A woman must not” in the imperative tense? And why does he bury this universal, timeless command for all churches for all time, in a personal letter to his deputy whom he has left behind to correct problems in one particular church having to do with false teaching (1 Tim 1:3)? Why does he commend many women in Rome who clearly have some influence (Rom 16), without mentioning to them that they would be going too far with this authority if they used it to teach or lead in a mixed-gender church gathering?
Finally, if Paul is really saying that there are some gifts of God that are only for men but not for women, why did he include women in: “there is neither Jew nor Greek . . . there is not male and female . . . for God sent His Son. . . that we might [all] receive the full rights of sons”? (Gal. 3:28-4-5.) The “full rights of sons” was a phrase that meant the full status of an adopted male heir as a son in every legal sense of the word, with all the rights and privileges pertaining thereto. Are women the only ones of this group who have fewer rights and privileges? Did Paul intend a freeborn Jewish Christian to be able to say to a Christian Gentile slave, “Paul was only talking about salvation here, so be content. We freeborn Jews get all the leadership roles and positions of power and authority in the church.”? And if women are the sole exception, why did Paul specifically include them as receiving “full rights of sons”?
I think I inadvertently addressed Lydia’s main issues in that last post.
Jeremy, you said:
“I just think that’s a weak argument that in a letter that mentions Phoebe, not addressed to her, Paul would tell her the guidelines to exercising her influence. Women were permitted to be deacons, and that was influential, but they were not allowed to teach men. Phoebe would have known this; Paul didn’t need to mention it in a letter to the Romans.”
Rom 16 talks about a lot more women than Phoebe. Priscilla, Mary, Junia, Tryphena, Tryphosa, Persis, Julia, and the “sister” of Nereus are all mentioned. Your assumption that these women knew they were not allowed to teach men is without basis. Churches were far apart, and letters were passed around by carriers. The letter to Timothy was a personal letter to one person, not to a church, and it was the letters to whole churches which were circulated. There is simply no textual evidence that all women in all churches were receiving a teaching that they were not to teach men.
It’s interesting that you mention Phoebe. One of the words Paul uses to describe her is “proestasis.” This is the noun form of the word “proestemi” (Cheryl can correct me if I’m spelling these wrong), which means literally “to stand before,” and is used to convey leadership in Rom. 12:8, “Let the one who leads (proestimi) govern diligently.” It is also used in 1 Tim. 5:17, “The elders who rule (proestimi) well are worthy of double honor.” It certainly looks as though Paul is describing Phoebe as a “leader” or “elder.”
See this essay for more information:
http://www.pbpayne.com/?p=501
In short, the interpretation of these passages in such a way as to forbid church authority to women, is by no means the only possible, or even the most likely, interpretation. Given the nature of humans in power to interpret the scriptures in ways that support their power, (such as using Noah’s curse over Ham to justify black slavery, or the scriptures on honoring the king to support “divine right of kings,” I would say that these traditional interpretations are all worthy of a second look. The passages used to support male domination are not exempt.
Tawanda, if God never intended any woman to have authority over any man– if this is His hard-and-fast rule– then what about Deborah, judge of Israel, and Huldah, prophetess to kings?
I would say that Paul does say “if anyone sets his heart on being an overseer.” “Anyone” here is a gender inclusive word. Also, in the ancient Greek, the masculine case was gender-inclusive unless the text indicated otherwise. “Husband of one wife” in the Greek is an idiomatic expression, “one-woman man,” and should best be rendered in modern English “faithful spouse.” They had no gender-neutral word like “spouse” for “married person” in that language.
Here are Cheryl’s own thoughts on this passage:
http://strivetoenter.com/wim/2007/01/28/does-%e2%80%9chusband-of-one-wife%e2%80%9d-disqualify-women-from-being-a-pastor/
You are quite correct that the scriptures are being twisted to please men– but not in the way you think. They are being twisted to favor men getting to stay in charge, when no such view can be shown to be the original intent.
Excellent answer Mara!
bobby,
Gender order must prevail? And what if it does not? And since it ‘must’ prevail, therefore it currently is not prevailing?
LOL – My wife just volunteered me to lead our next couples small group bible study. Talk about controlling! Or does that put me in control? I’m so confused.
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